Home >> NEET - 2016
Welcome Dear Student and Shine in NEET with Shine NEET SmartPrep!.
All NEET - 2016 questions are displayed here. But you would be able to try only a sub set of these questions in your free trial.
We recommend you explore the full system and go for a one time subscription if you are satisfied.
Try it out and feel the difference!!

Subscribe to full version of smart test prep solution for the same cost of a static and boring printed question bank!

Limited-Time Offer: Get all this for just ₹1199

Why settle for outdated methods when you can prepare smarter, track better, and score higher?
Subscribe Now & Take Control of Your NEET Prep !

Subscribe
Your Full Test Performance Summary
You are yet to try out this test. Performance Summary not avialable !
Questions Available: 180
Questions Attempted: 0
Number of Attempts: 0
Correct Attempts: 0
Total Time Spent: 00:00
Avg Time Per Question: 00:00
Start Test
1.
Match the corresponding entries of Column 1 with Column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]

(1).
A \(\rightarrow\) a and c; B \(\rightarrow\) a and d; C \(\rightarrow\) a and b; D \(\rightarrow\) c and d
(2).
A \(\rightarrow\) a and d; B \(\rightarrow\) b and c; C \(\rightarrow\) b and d; D \(\rightarrow\) b and c
(3).
A \(\rightarrow\) c and d; B \(\rightarrow\) b and d; C \(\rightarrow\) b and c; D \(\rightarrow\) a and d
(4).
A \(\rightarrow\) b and c; B \(\rightarrow\) b and c; C \(\rightarrow\) b and d; D \(\rightarrow\) a and d
2.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that can complete the loop?

(1).
\(\sqrt{3gR}\)
(2).
\(\sqrt{5gR}\)
(3).
\(\sqrt{gR}\)
(4).
\(\sqrt{2gR}\)
3.
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{11\, MR^2}{32}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{9\, MR^2}{32}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{15 MR^2}{32}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{13 MR^2}{32}\)
4.
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:

(1).
\( 45^\circ \)
(2).
\( 180^\circ \)
(3).
\( 0^\circ \)
(4).
\( 90^\circ \)
5.
When an \(\alpha\)-particle of mass m moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{m^2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle m\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{m}\)
6.
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is

(1).
3 : 4
(2).
3 : 2
(3).
5 : 1
(4).
5 : 4
7.
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10−4J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion ?

(1).
\(0.18\, \text{m/s}^2\)
(2).
\(0.2\, \text{m/s}^2\)
(3).
\(0.1\, \text{m/s}^2\)
(4).
\(0.15\, \text{m/s}^2\)
8.
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of time dependent force \(\vec{F}\) = \(\left(2t\hat{i} + 3t^2\hat{j}\right)\) N , where \(\hat{i}\) and \(\hat{j}\) are unit vectors along x and y axis.What power will developed by the force at the time (t) ?

(1).
(2t3 + 3t4) W
(2).
(2t3 + 3t5) W
(3).
(2t2 + 3t3) W
(4).
(2t2 + 4t4) W
9.
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prismis \(45^\circ\). The angle of prism is \(60^\circ\). If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are

(1).
\(\displaystyle 30^\circ\, ; \sqrt{2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle 45^\circ\, ; \sqrt{2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle 30^\circ\, ; \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle 45^\circ\, ; \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
10.
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are \(-\, 5.4 × 10^7J\, \text{Kg}^{−2}\) and \(6.0\,\text{ms}^{−2}\) respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.

(1).
\(1400\, \text{Km}\)
(2).
\(2000\, \text{Km}\)
(3).
\(2600\, \text{Km}\)
(4).
\(1600\, \text{Km}\)
11.
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (\(v_e\)) to the escape velocity at a planet (\(v_p\)) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is

(1).
\(1 : 4\)
(2).
\(1 : \sqrt{2}\)
(3).
\(1 : 2\)
(4).
\(1 : 2\sqrt{2}\)
12.
A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cmaway from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance

(1).
46.0 cm
(2).
50.0 cm
(3).
54.0 cm
(4).
37.3 cm
13.
The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is \(I_0\). Distance between two slits is \(d\, =\, 5\lambda\), where \(\lambda\) is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10 d?

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{4}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}I_0\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{2}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle I_0\)
14.
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of

(1).
\(\displaystyle sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle sin^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle sin^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle sin^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)\)
15.
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half.

(1).
compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
(2).
compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
(3).
which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
(4).
compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
16.
A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant.The power required is (Take, 1 cal =4.2Joules)

(1).
23.65 W
(2).
236.5 W
(3).
2365 W
(4).
2.365 W
17.
If the velocity of a particle is \(\text{v}\, =\, \text{At}\, +\, \text{Bt}^2\), where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between \(1\,s\) and \(2\,s\) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}\,\text{A}\, +\,\frac{7}{3}\,\text{B}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{A}}{2}\,+\,\frac{\text{B}}{3}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}\,\text{A}\, +\, 4\text{B}\)
(4).
\(3\,\text{A}\, +\, 7\,\text{B}\)
18.
A disc and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?

(1).
Both reach at the same time
(2).
Depends on their masses
(3).
Disk
(4).
Sphere
19.
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s−2. Its net acceleration in s−2 at the end of 2.0 S is approximately

(1).
6.0
(2).
3.0
(3).
8.0
(4).
7.0
20.
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of \(200\, \text{ms}^{−1}\) at \(27^\circ \text{C}\) and \(1.0 \times 10^5 \text{Nm}^{−2}\) pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, \(127^ \circ \text{C}\) and \(0.05 \times 10^5 \text{Nm}^{ −2}\) , the rms velocity of its molecules in \(\text{ms}^{ −1}\) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{100\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{100}{3}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle100\sqrt{2}\)
21.
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio ofde-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is(c being velocity of light)

(1).
\(\displaystyle c\left(2mE\right)^{1/2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{c}\left(\frac{2m}{E}\right)^{1/2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{c}\left(\frac{E}{2m}\right)^{1/2}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \left(\frac{E}{2m}\right)^{1/2}\)
22.
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength \(\lambda\), the stopping potential is \(\text{V}\). If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength \(2\lambda\), the stopping potential is \(\displaystyle \frac{V}{4}\).The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{2}\, \lambda\)
(2).
\(3\, \lambda\)
(3).
\(4\, \lambda\)
(4).
\(5\, \lambda\)
23.
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two mass less strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d < < l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other witha velocity \(v\). Then, \(v\) varies as a function of the distance \(x\) between the sphere, as

(1).
\(\displaystyle v \propto {x}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle v \propto {x^{-\frac{1}{2}}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle v \propto {x^{-1}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle v \propto {x^{\frac{1}{2}}}\)
24.
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are \(\alpha_1\) and \(\alpha_2\). Length of brass and steel rods are \(l_1\) and \(l_2\) respectively. If \(\left(l_2 − l_1\right)\) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?

(1).
\({\alpha_1}^2 l_2 = {\alpha_2}^2l_1\)
(2).
\(\alpha_1 l_1 = \alpha_2 l_ 2\)
(3).
\(\alpha_1 l_ 2 = \alpha_2 l_1\)
(4).
\(\alpha_1 l_ 2^2 = \alpha_2 l_1^2\)
25.
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of \(h\) is [Latent heat of ice is \(3.4 × 10^5 J/kg\) and \(g = 10 N/kg\)

(1).
\(136\, \text{Km}\)
(2).
\(68\, \text{Km}\)
(3).
\(34\, \text{Km}\)
(4).
\(544\, \text{Km}\)
26.
A black body is at a temperature of \(5760\, \text{K}\). The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength \(250\, \text{nm}\) is \(\text{U}_1\),at wavelength \(500\, \text{nm}\) is \(\text{U}_2\) and that at \(1000\, \text{nm}\) is \(\text{U}_3\) Wien's constant, \(\text{b}\, =\, 2.88 \times 10^6\, \text{nmK}\). Which of the following is correct?

(1).
\(\text{U}_1\, >\, \text{U}_2\)
(2).
\(\text{U}_2\, >\, \text{U}_1 \)
(3).
\(\text{U}_1 \,=\, 0\)
(4).
\(\text{U}_3\, =\, 0\)
27.
Two non-mixing liquids of densities \(p\) and \(np \left(n > 1\right)\) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is \(\text{"A"}\). A solid cylinder of length \(\text{L}\) and density \(\text{d}\) is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length \(pL \left(p < 1\right)\) in the denser liquid. The density \(d\) is equal to

(1).
\(\{2 + \left(n − 1\right)p\}\rho\)
(2).
\(\{1 + \left(n − 1\right)p\}\rho\)
(3).
\(\{1 + \left(n + 1\right)p\}\rho\)
(4).
\(\{2 + \left(n + 1\right)p\}\rho\)
28.
To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the inputis

(1).
A = 1,B = 1, C = 0
(2).
A = 1, B = 0, C= 1
(3).
A = 0, B = 1,C = 0
(4).
A = 1 , B = 0, C = 0
29.
A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of \(800\, \Omega\) is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is \(0.8\, \text{V}\). If the current amplification factor is \(0.96\) and the input resistance of the circuit is \(192\, \Omega\), the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be

(1).
4, 4
(2).
4, 3.69
(3).
4, 3.84
(4).
3.69, 3.84
30.
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is

(1).
\(10^{−1}\,A\)
(2).
\(10^{−3}\,A\)
(3).
\(0\,A\)
(4).
\(10^{−2}\,A\)
31.
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by \(\vec{r}\, =\, cos \,\omega \,t\, \hat{x}\, +\, sin\, \omega\,t\,\hat{y}\), where \(\omega\) is a constant. Which of the following is true ?

(1).
Velocity is perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\) and acceleration is directed towards the origin
(2).
Velocity is perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\) and acceleration is directed away from the origin
(3).
Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\)
(4).
Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to \(\vec{r}\)
32.
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf
\(V\, =\, 10\,sin\,340\,t\). The power loss in A.C. circuit is

(1).
0.76 W
(2).
0.89 W
(3).
0.51 W
(4).
0.67 W
33.
A small signal voltage V (t) = V0 sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C

(1).
Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
(2).
Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.
(3).
Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90°
(4).
Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source
34.
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10 −3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is

(1).
2 H
(2).
1 H
(3).
4 H
(4).
3 H
35.
A siren emitting a sound of frequency \(800\, Hz\) moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of \(15\, \text{ms}^{−1}\). Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is (Take velocity of sound in air = \(330\,\text{ms}^{−1}\))

(1).
\(838\, \text{Hz}\)
(2).
\(885\,\text{Hz}\)
(3).
\(765\, \text{Hz}\)
(4).
\(800\, \text{Hz}\)
36.
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is \(50\, \text{Cm}\). The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is

(1).
\(150\, \text{Cm}\)
(2).
\(200\, \text{Cm}\)
(3).
\(66.7\, \text{Cm}\)
(4).
\(100\, \text{Cm}\)
37.
A uniform rope of length \(L\) and mass \(m_1\) hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass \(m_2\) is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength \(λ_1\) is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is \(λ_2\).The ratio \(\displaystyle \frac{λ_1}{λ_2}\) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{m2}{m1}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{m1 + m2}{m1}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{m1}{m2}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{m1 + m2}{m2}}\)
38.
A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is

(1).
75%
(2).
80%
(3).
0%
(4).
20%
39.
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at anangle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μs. The maximum safe velocity on this road is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{g\mu_s + tanθ}{R1 − \mu_stanθ}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{g\mu_s + tanθ}{R^21 − \mu_stanθ}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{gR^2\frac{\mu_s + tanθ}{1 − \mu_stanθ}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{gR\frac{\mu_s + tanθ}{1 − \mu_stanθ}}\)
40.
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for

(1).
ferromagnetic material only
(2).
paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
(3).
diamagnetic material only
(4).
paramagnetic material only
41.
Given the value of Rydberg constant is \(10\,\text{m}^{-1}\), the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be

(1).
\(0.5 \times 10^7\,\text{m}^{-1}\)
(2).
\(0.25 \times 10^7\,\text{m}^{-1}\)
(3).
\(2.5 \times 10^7\,\text{m}^{-1}\)
(4).
\(0.025 \times 10^4\,\text{m}^{-1}\)
42.
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as \(\text{Q}\, =\, at − bt^2\), where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{a^3R}{2b}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{a^3R}{b}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{a^3R}{6b}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{a^3R}{3b}\)
43.
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?

(1).
A chargeless particle
(2).
An accelerating charge
(3).
A charge moving at constant velocity
(4).
A stationary charge
44.
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B', at radial distances \(\displaystyle\frac{a}{2}\) and \(2a\) respectively, from the axis of the wire is

(1).
\(1\)
(2).
\(4\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle\frac{1}{4}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}\)
45.
A square loop ABCD carrying a current is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be

(1).
\(\displaystyle\frac{2µ_0I iL}{3π}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle\frac{µ_0I iL}{2π}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle\frac{2µ_0I i}{3π}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle\frac{µ_0I i}{2π}\)
46.
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code.

Codes

(1).
A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 5
(2).
A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4
(3).
A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1
(4).
A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1
47.
Which is the correct statement for the given acids ?

(1).
Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
(2).
Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid
(3).
Both are triprotic acids
(4).
Both are diprotic acids
48.
Fog is a colloidal solution of

(1).
Gas in liquid
(2).
Solid in gas
(3).
Gas in gas
(4).
Liquid in gas
49.
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules ?

(1).
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(2).
Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
(3).
F2 > Cl2 Br2 > I2
(4).
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
50.
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts have the same Ksp values of 6.2 × 10-13 at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3 ?

(1).
The molar solubility of MY in water is less than of NY3
(2).
The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water
(3).
The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities
(4).
The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical
51.
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect ?

(1).
Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
(2).
Hydronium ion , H3O+ exists freely in solution
(3).
Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent
(4).
Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common
52.
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is

(1).
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone - pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring л - electron system.
(2).
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group.
(3).
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines , because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp - hybridized.
(4).
Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone - pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring л - electron system.
53.
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces

(1).
Cu(NO3)2 and NO
(2).
Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2
(3).
Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
(4).
Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
54.
For the following reactions,
(i) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH \(\rightarrow\) CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O
(ii)
(iii)
Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1).
(i) is elimination reaction, (ii) is substitution and (iii) is addition reaction
(2).
(i) is elimination, (ii) and (iii) are substitution reactions
(3).
(i) is substitution, (ii) and (iii) are addition reactions
(4).
(i) and (ii) are elimination reactions and (iii) is addition reaction
55.
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

(1).
magnetic quantum number.
(2).
azimuthal quantum number.
(3).
spin quantum number.
(4).
principal quantum number.
56.
he reaction

can be classified as

(1).
Alcohol formation reaction
(2).
Dehydration reaction
(3).
Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
(4).
Williamson ether synthesis reaction
57.
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic no. 64) and Tb (Atomic no. 65) are

(1).
[Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f9 6s2
(2).
[Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2, and [Xe] 4f8 5d1 6s2
(3).
[Xe] 4f7 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f9 6s2
(4).
[Xe] 4f7 6s2, [Xe] 4f5 6s2 and [Xe] 4f8 5d1 6s2
58.
At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be

(1).
100°C
(2).
102°C
(3).
103°C
(4).
101°C
59.
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is

(1).
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
(2).
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain
(3).
The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain
(4).
The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain
60.
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption ?

(1).
∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are negative
(2).
∆G and ∆H are negative but ∆S is positive
(3).
∆G and ∆S are negative but ∆H is positive
(4).
∆G is negative but ∆H and ∆S are positive
61.
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option.

(1).
A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3
(2).
A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2
(3).
A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3
(4).
A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2
62.
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is

(1).
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration
(2).
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation
(3).
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism
(4).
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol
63.
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by

(1).
β-glycosidic bond
(2).
peptide bond
(3).
dative bond
(4).
a-glycosidic bond
64.
Which of the following is an analgesic ?

(1).
Penicillin
(2).
Streptomycin
(3).
Chloromycetin
(4).
Novalgin
65.
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C≡C–, is present in which orbitals ?

(1).
sp3
(2).
sp2
(3).
sp
(4).
2p
66.
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false ?

(1).
The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H–C–H bond angle in CH4
(2).
the The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is smaller than H–N–H bond angle in NH3
(3).
The H–C–H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H–N–H bond angle in NH3
(4).
The H–C–H bond angle in CH4, the H-N-H bond angle in NH3 and the H-O-H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90°
67.
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution ?

(1).
The solution is decolourized
(2).
SO2 is reduced
(3).
Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
(4).
The solution turns blue
68.
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is

(1).
AH > 0 and AS < 0
(2).
AH < 0 and AS > 0
(3).
AH < 0 and AS < 0
(4).
AH < 0 and AS = 0
69.
Natural rubber has

(1).
all trans - configuration
(2).
alternate cis- and trans - configuration
(3).
random cis- and trans - configuration
(4).
all cis- configuration
70.
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it ?

(1).
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(2).
I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(3).
Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
(4).
Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- (increasing ionic size)
71.
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis - cyclopenta - 1 , 2 - diol from the trans - isomer ?

(1).
Ozone
(2).
MnO2
(3).
Aluminium isopropoxide
(4).
Acetone
72.
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is

(1).
CaCN
(2).
CaCN3
(3).
Ca2CN
(4).
Ca(CN)2
73.
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in container with a pin - hole through which both can escape . What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one - half of the hydrogen to escape ?

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{1}}{\text{4}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{3}}{\text{8}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{1}}{\text{2}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{1}}{\text{8}}\)
74.
Lithium has a bcc structure . Its density is 530 kg m‍-3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol-1 . Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of lithium metal.
( NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1 ).

(1).
352 pm
(2).
527 pm
(3).
264 pm
(4).
154 pm
75.
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25 ° C.
( Given , vapour pressure data at 25 ° C , benzene = 12.8 kPa , toluene = 3.85 kPa )

(1).
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
(2).
The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene
(3).
Not enough information is given to make a prediction
(4).
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene
76.
Which of the following has longest C – O bond length ? ( Free C - O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å . )

(1).
[ Co(CO)4]-
(2).
[ Fe(CO)4]2-
(3).
[ Mn(CO)6]+
(4).
Ni(CO)4
77.
Among the following , the correct order of acidity is

(1).
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(2).
HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
(3).
HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
(4).
HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
78.
In the reaction,

(1).
X = 2-butyne ; Y = 3-hexyne
(2).
X = 2-butyne ; Y = 2-hexyne
(3).
X = 1-butyne ; Y = 2-hexyne
(4).
X = 1-butyne ; Y = 3-hexyne
79.
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc . H2SO4 and HNO3 . If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture , the rate of nitration will be

(1).
slower
(2).
unchanged
(3).
doubled
(4).
faster
80.
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is

(1).
ketone
(2).
carboxylic acid
(3).
aromatic acid
(4).
schiff base
81.
The pressure ofH2 required to make the potential of H<2/sub> - electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is

(1).
10-12 atm
(2).
10-10 atm
(3).
10-4 atm
(4).
10-14 atm
82.
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA , respectively is

(1).
The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2`-deoxyribose
(2).
The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
(3).
The sugar component in RNA is 2 '-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
(4).
The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2 '-deoxyribose
83.
Which one given below is a non - reducing sugar ?

(1).
Lactose
(2).
Glucose
(3).
Sucrose
(4).
Maltose
84.
Consider the following liquid - vapour equilibrium
Liquid \(\rightleftharpoons\) Vapour
Which of the following relations is correct ?

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dlnP}}{\text{dT}}\) = \(\displaystyle \frac{- \Delta text{H}_v}{\text{RT}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dlnP}}{\text{dT}^2}\) = \(\displaystyle \frac{- \Delta text{H}_v}{\text{T}^2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dlnP}}{\text{dT}}\) = \(\displaystyle \frac{- \Delta text{H}_v}{\text{RT}^2}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dlnG}}{\text{dT}^2}\) = \(\displaystyle \frac{- \Delta text{H}_v}{\text{RT}^2}\)
85.
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active ?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
86.
Which of the following statements is false ?

(1).
Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
(2).
Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart .
(3).
Mg2+ions are important in the green parts of plants
(4).
Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP
87.
The ionic radii of A + and B- ions are 0.98 × 10-10 m and 1.81 × 10-10 m . The coordination number of each ion in AB is

(1).
4
(2).
8
(3).
2
(4).
6
88.
The rate of a first - order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1S-1 at 10 sec and 0.03 mol L-1S-1 at 20 sec after initiation of the reaction . The half - life period of the reaction is

(1).
34.1 s
(2).
44.1 s
(3).
54.1 s
(4).
24.1 s
89.
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?

(1).
Internal energy
(2).
Enthalpy
(3).
Activation energy
(4).
Entropy
90.
Predict the correct order among the following .

(1).
lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
(2).
bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(3).
lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(4).
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
91.
Mitochondria and chloroplast are
I. semi-autonomous organelles
II. formed by the division of pre existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery
Which one of the following options is correct?

(1).
II is true but I is false
(2).
I is true but II is false
(3).
Both I and II are false
(4).
Both I and II are correct
92.
Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in the kingdom

(1).
Protista
(2).
Fungi
(3).
Animalia
(4).
Monera
93.
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed, the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of

(1).
1 : 2 : 1; tall heterozygous : tall homozygous : dwarf
(2).
3 : 1; tall : dwarf
(3).
3 : 1; dwarf : tall
(4).
1 : 2 : 1; tall homozygous : tall heterozygous : dwarf
94.
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers

(1).
ozone
(2).
ammonia
(3).
methane
(4).
nitrous oxide
95.
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the

(1).
parietal cells
(2).
peptic cells
(3).
acidic cells
(4).
gastrin secreting cells
96.
Which of following is wrongly matched in the given table ?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
97.
Which of the following is not a stem modification ?

(1).
Thorns of citrus
(2).
Tendrils of cucumber
(3).
Flattened structures of Opuntia
(4).
Pitcher of Nepenthes
98.
Select the incorrect statement

(1).
LH and FSH triggers ovulation in ovary
(2).
LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
(3).
LH triggers secretion of androgens from the leydig cells
(4).
FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
99.
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is

(1).
peptidoglycan
(2).
cellulose
(3).
hemicellulose
(4).
chitin
100.
Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1).
Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen nectar robbers
(2).
Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil
(3).
Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species
(4).
Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style
101.
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells ?

(1).
Disappearance of nucleolus
(2).
Chromosome movement
(3).
Synapsis
(4).
Spindle fibres
102.
In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1).
It is used for prenatal sex determination
(2).
It can be used for detection of down syndrome
(3).
It can be used for detection of cleft palate
(4).
It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant
103.
The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from

(1).
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
(2).
Bacillus subtilis
(3).
Pseudomonas subtilis
(4).
Thermus aquaticus
104.
The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called

(1).
pappus
(2).
vexillum
(3).
corona
(4).
carina
105.
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals ?

(1).
Viviparous - Mammalia
(2).
Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw - Chordata
(3).
3 chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle - Reptilia
(4).
Cartilaginous endoskeleton - Chondrichthyes
106.
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of

(1).
estrogen and inhibin
(2).
progesterone only
(3).
progesterone and inhibin
(4).
estrogen and progesterone
107.
Microtubules are the constituents of

(1).
spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
(2).
centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
(3).
centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
(4).
cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
108.
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of

(1).
opsin and retinal
(2).
opsin and retinol
(3).
transducin and retinene
(4).
guanosine and retinol
109.
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the

(1).
thermoacidophiles
(2).
eubacteria
(3).
methanogens
(4).
halophiles
110.
Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’.

(1).
It is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
(2).
It is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH
(3).
It is produced by the nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH
(4).
It inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and prolactin
111.
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because

(1).
small animals have a higher metabolic rate.
(2).
small animals have low O2 requirement.
(3).
the efficiency of muscles in the large animals is less than the small animals.
(4).
it is easier to carry a small body weight.
112.
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ?

(1).
Least genetic diversity
(2).
The absence of weeds
(3).
Ecological succession
(4).
The absence of soil organisms
113.
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in the flowers of

(1).
Solanaceae
(2).
Fabaceae
(3).
Poaceae
(4).
Liliaceae
114.
In which of the following, all the three are macronutrients ?

(1).
Iron, copper, molybdenum
(2).
Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
(3).
Nitrogen, magnesium, phosphorus
(4).
Boron, zinc, manganese
115.
Reduction in pH of blood will

(1).
reduce the blood supply to the brain
(2).
decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
(3).
release bicarbonate ions by the liver
(4).
reduce the rate of heart beat.
116.
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as

(1).
fatigue
(2).
tetanus
(3).
tonus
(4).
spasm
117.
Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(1).
Golden algae are also called desmids
(2).
Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
(3).
Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
(4).
Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
118.
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

(1).
Protease
(2).
DNase I
(3).
RNase
(4).
Hind II
119.
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks ?

(1).
Liverworts
(2).
Mosses
(3).
Green algae
(4).
Lichens
120.
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using the following options.

(1).
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different
(2).
The above processes happen only during night time
(3).
One process occurs during day time and the other at night
(4).
Both processes cannot happen simultaneously
121.
Cotyledon of maize grain is called

(1).
coleorhiza
(2).
coleoptile
(3).
scutellum
(4).
plumule
122.
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum ?

(1).
Ileocaecal valve
(2).
Pyloric sphincter
(3).
Sphincter of Oddi
(4).
Semilunar valve
123.
In the mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea ?

(1).
Dorsal Aorta
(2).
Hepatic Vein
(3).
Hepatic Portal Vein
(4).
Renal Vein
124.
The term ecosystem was coined by

(1).
A G Tansley
(2).
E Haeckel
(3).
E Warming
(4).
EP Odum
125.
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of lac operon ?

(1).
galactose
(2).
lactose
(3).
lactose and galactose
(4).
glucose
126.
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic modal equals zero ? The logistic model is given as
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}\) = \(\displaystyle \text{rN} \left(\frac{\text{1-N}}{\text{K}}\right)\)

(1).
when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
(2).
when N / K equals zero
(3).
when death rate is greater than birth rate
(4).
when N / K is exactly one
127.
Which one of the following statements is not true ?

(1).
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(2).
Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
(3).
Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
(4).
Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
128.
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires

(1).
insects
(2).
birds
(3).
water
(4).
wind
129.
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?

(1).
Chloroplasts
(2).
Lysosomes
(3).
Nuclei
(4).
Mitochondria
130.
Analogous structures are a result of

(1).
convergent evolution
(2).
shared ancestry
(3).
stabilising selection
(4).
divergent evolution
131.
Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(1).
Cellulose is a polysaccharide
(2).
Uracil is a pyrimidine
(3).
Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid
(4).
Sucrose is a disaccharide
132.
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the

(1).
connective
(2).
placenta
(3).
thalamus or petal
(4).
anther
133.
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present ?

(1).
Zinc finger analysis
(2).
Restriction enzymes
(3).
DNA - DNA hybridisation
(4).
Polymerase chain reaction
134.
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals ?

(1).
Breathing using lungs
(2).
Viviparity
(3).
Warm blooded nature
(4).
Ossified endoskeleton
135.
The amino acid, tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of

(1).
thyroxine and tri - iodothyronine
(2).
estrogen and progesterone
(3).
cortisol and cortisone
(4).
melatonin and serotonin
136.
Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during

(1).
1970s
(2).
1980s
(3).
1990s
(4).
1960s
137.
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as

(1).
polymer
(2).
polypeptide
(3).
okazaki fragment
(4).
polysome
138.
Which of the following features is not present in the phylum - Arthropoda?

(1).
Metameric segmentation
(2).
Parapodia
(3).
Jointed appendages
(4).
Chitinous exoskeleton
139.
Asthma may be attributed to

(1).
allergic reaction of most of the cells in the lungs
(2).
inflammation of the trachea
(3).
accumulation of fluid in the lungs
(4).
bacterial infection of the lungs
140.
Pick out the correct statements
I. Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive disease
II . Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
III . Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
IV . Sickle cell anaemia is an X linked recessive gene disorder

(1).
II and IV are correct
(2).
I , III and IV are correct
(3).
I , II and III are correct
(4).
I and IV are correct
141.
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by

(1).
phosphodiester bonds
(2).
covalent bonds
(3).
disulphide bridges
(4).
hydrogen bonds
142.
The coconut water from tender coconut represents

(1).
fleshy mesocarp
(2).
free - nuclear proembryo
(3).
free - nuclear endosperm
(4).
endocarp
143.
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?

(1).
Circular structure
(2).
Transferable
(3).
Single - stranded
(4).
Independent replication
144.
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ?

(1).
River dolphin
(2).
Blue whale
(3).
Sea-horse
(4).
Gangetic shark
145.
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of

(1).
GA3
(2).
IAA
(3).
ethylene
(4).
ABA
146.
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?

(1).
Alien species invasion
(2).
Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3).
Co-extinctions
(4).
Over-exploitation
147.
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ?
Microbe: Product

(1).
Intra uterine devices: Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
(2).
Hormonal contraceptives: Prevents/retards the entry of sperms, prevents ovulation and fertilisation
(3).
Vasectomy: Prevents spermatogenesis
(4).
Barrier methods: Prevents fertilisation
148.
In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant type offspring. This indicates

(1).
chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
(2).
the two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
(3).
both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene
(4).
the two genes are located on two different chromosomes
149.
A typical fat molecule is made up of

(1).
one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(2).
one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(3).
three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(4).
three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
150.
Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct option.

(1).
A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1
(2).
A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3
(3).
A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2
(4).
A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3
151.
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana ?

(1).
Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
(2).
Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
(3).
Metamerically segmented body
(4).
Schizocoelom as body cavity
152.
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are

(1).
chlorophylls
(2).
carotenoids
(3).
anthocyanins
(4).
xanthophylls
153.
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in

(1).
polyploidy
(2).
somaclonal variation
(3).
polyteny
(4).
aneuploidy
154.
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ?

(1).
C4
(2).
CAM
(3).
Nitrogen-fixer
(4).
C3
155.
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to

(1).
graft rejection
(2).
auto-immune disease
(3).
active immunity
(4).
allergic response
156.
Emerson's enhancement effect and red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of

(1).
two photosystems operating simultaneously
(2).
photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
(3).
oxidative phosphorylation
(4).
photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
157.
Select the correct statement

(1).
Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(2).
Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
(3).
The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
(4).
Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
158.
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is

(1).
more than that in the carotid
(2).
more than that in the pulmonary vein
(3).
less than that in the venae cavae
(4).
same as that in the aorta
159.
Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird ?

(1).
Wing of a moth
(2).
Hind limb of rabbit
(3).
Flipper of whale
(4).
Dorsal fin of a shark
160.
Seed formation without fertilisation in flowering plants involves the process of

(1).
budding
(2).
somatic hybridization
(3).
apomixis
(4).
sporulation
161.
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking

(1).
asthma
(2).
respiratory acidosis
(3).
respiratory alkalosis
(4).
emphysema
162.
Spindle fibres attach on to

(1).
kinetochore of the chromosome
(2).
centromere of the chromosome
(3).
kinetosome of the chromosome
(4).
telomere of the chromosome
163.
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as

(1).
phyllodes
(2).
phylloclades
(3).
scales
(4).
cladodes
164.
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in

(1).
lumen of thylakoids
(2).
intermembrane space
(3).
antennae complex
(4).
stroma
165.
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature ?

(1).
The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet
(2).
The names are written in Latin and are Italicised
(3).
When written by hand , the names are to be underlined
(4).
Biological names can be written in any languag
166.
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at

(1).
leptotene
(2).
zygotene
(3).
diplotene
(4).
pachytene
167.
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain

(1).
harvested antibodies
(2).
gamma globulin
(3).
attenuated pathogens
(4).
activated pathogens
168.
Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ?

(1).
X-linked recessive gene disorder
(2).
Chromosomal disorder
(3).
Dominant gene disorder
(4).
Recessive gene disorder
169.
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?

(1).
Leaf
(2).
Stem
(3).
Root
(4).
Flower
170.
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids ?

(1).
They are smaller than viruses
(2).
They cause infections
(3).
Their RNA is of high molecular weight
(4).
They lack a protein coat
171.
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations ?

(1).
Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
(2).
Mutations inactivate the cell control
(3).
Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
(4).
Mutations in proto - oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
172.
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?

(1).
Areolar tissue - Tendons
(2).
Transitional - Tip of nose epithelium
(3).
Cuboidal epithelium - Lining of stomach
(4).
Smooth muscle - Wall of intestine
173.
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other ?

(1).
Insulin - Glucagon
(2).
Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(3).
Relaxin - Inhibin
(4).
Parathormone - Calcitonin
174.
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called

(1).
subsidiary cells
(2).
bulliform cells
(3).
lenticels
(4).
complementary cells
175.
Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if

(1).
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
(2).
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix
(3).
the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
(4).
the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
176.
Which one of the following is the start codon ?

(1).
UGA
(2).
UAA
(3).
UAG
(4).
AUG
177.
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in

(1).
increased population of aquatic food web organisms
(2).
an increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients
(3).
death of fish due to lack of oxygen
(4).
drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom
178.
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life
I. The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes
II. The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?

(1).
II is correct but I is false
(2).
Both I and II are correct
(3).
Both I and II are false.
(4).
I is correct but II is false
179.
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called

(1).
contour farming
(2).
strip farming
(3).
shifting agriculture
(4).
ley farming
180.
Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that

(1).
competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
(2).
no two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources
(3).
larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition
(4).
more abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition