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1.
A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just above the source L. When the mirror is rotated through a small angle "q", the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle \(\theta\) is given by

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{y}}{2\text{x}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{y}}{\text{x}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{x}}{2\text{y}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{x}}{\text{y}}\)
2.
The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths \(\lambda_1 = 4000\,\mathring{A}\) and \(\lambda_2 = 6000\, \mathring{A}\) is

(1).
8 : 27
(2).
9 : 4
(3).
3 : 2
(4).
16 : 81
3.
Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is \(−e\) and the other is \(\left(e + \Delta e\right)\). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then \(\Delta e\) is of the order [Given mass of hydrogen, \(m_h =1.67 × 10^{−27} kg\)]

(1).
\(10^{-20} \,C\)
(2).
\(10^{-23} \,C\)
(3).
\(10^{-37} \,C\)
(4).
\(10^{-47} \,C\)
4.
One end of string of length \(l\) is connected to a particle of mass \('m'\) and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table.If the particle moves in circle with speed 'V' , the net force on the particle (directed towards center) will be (T represents the tension in the string)

(1).
\(\displaystyle T\, +\, \frac{mv^2}{l}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle T\, -\, \frac{mv^2}{l}\)
(3).
zero
(4).
\(T\)
5.
Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50ms−1. Take 'g' constant with a value 10ms−2.The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is

(1).
(i) 1.25 J (ii) -8.25 J
(2).
(i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
(3).
(i) 10 J (ii) -8.75 J
(4).
(i) -10 J (ii) -8.25 J
6.
A thin prism having refracting angle \(10^\circ\) is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prismof glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of second prism should be

(1).
\(4^\circ\)
(2).
\(6^\circ\)
(3).
\(8^\circ\)
(4).
\(10^\circ\)
7.
The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 Km above the earth is the same as at a depth "d" below the surface of earth. Then

(1).
d = 1 km
(2).
d = 32 km
(3).
d = 2 km
(4).
d = 12 km
8.
Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will

(1).
move towards each other
(2).
move away from each other
(3).
will become stationary
(4).
keep floating at the same distance between them
9.
Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

(1).
1.25
(2).
1.59
(3).
1.69
(4).
1.78
10.
A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and \(\displaystyle \frac{e^2}{4\pi \, \epsilon_0}\) is
[c is velocity of light, G is the universal constant of gravitation and e is charge]

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
11.
Two polaroids \(\text{P}_1\) and \( \text{P}_ 2\) are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light \(\text{I}_0\) is incident on \(\text{P}_1\) . A third polaroid \(\text{P}_3\) is kept in between \(\text{P}_1\) and \(\text{P}_2\) such that its axis makes an angle 45° with that of \(\text{P}_1\). The intensity of transmitted light through \(\text{P}_2\) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{4}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{8}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{16}\)
12.
Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram

Match the following:

(1).
\(P\rightarrow a\), \(Q\rightarrow c\), \(R\rightarrow d\), \(S\rightarrow b\)
(2).
\(P\rightarrow c\), \(Q\rightarrow a\), \(R\rightarrow d\), \(S\rightarrow b\)
(3).
\(P\rightarrow c\), \(Q\rightarrow d\), \(R\rightarrow b\), \(S\rightarrow a\)
(4).
\(P\rightarrow d\), \(Q\rightarrow b\), \(R\rightarrow a\), \(S\rightarrow c\)
13.
A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?

(1).
\(0.25\, \text{rad}\, s^{−2}\)
(2).
\(25\, \text{rad}\, s^{−2}\)
(3).
\(5\, m\,s^{−2}\)
(4).
\(25\, m\,s^{−2}\)
14.
Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities ω1 and ω2.They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{4} I \left(ω_1 − ω_2\right)^2\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle I \left(ω_1 − ω_2\right)^2\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{8} I \left(ω_1 − ω_2\right)^2\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2} I \left(ω_1 + ω_2\right)^2\)
15.
A Carnot engine having an efficiency of 110 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the workdone on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is

(1).
1 J
(2).
90 J
(3).
99 J
(4).
100 J
16.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.
(2) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero.
(3) A couple on a body produces both transnational and rotational motion in a body.
(4) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a large load.

(1).
(1) and (2)
(2).
(2) and (3)
(3).
(3) and (4)
(4).
none of the above
17.
Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time \(t_1\). On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time \(t_2\). The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{t_1\,t_2}{t_2\,-\,t_1}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{t_1\,t_2}{t_2\,+\,t_1}\)
(3).
\(t_1\,-\,t_2\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{t_1\,+\,t_2}{2}\)
18.
A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of \(O_2\) and 4 moles of \(A_r\) at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

(1).
4 RT
(2).
15 RT
(3).
9 RT
(4).
11 RT
19.
The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (kelvin) and mass m, is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{h}{\sqrt{3mkT}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2h}{\sqrt{3mkT}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2h}{\sqrt{mkT}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{h}{\sqrt{mkT}}\)
20.
The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is \(3250 \times 10^{−10}\,m\). The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength \(2536 \times 10^{−10}\,m\) is
[Given: \(h \,=\, 4.14 \times 10^{−15}\, \text{eVs}\) and \(c \,=\, 3 \times 10^8\,ms^{−1}\)]

(1).
\(\approx 0.6 \times 10^6\,ms^{−1}\)
(2).
\(\approx 61 \times 10^3\,ms^{−1}\)
(3).
\(\approx 0.3 \times 10^6\,ms^{−1}\)
(4).
\(\approx 6 \times 10^5\,ms^{−1}\)
21.
Two rods \(A\) and \(B\) of different materials are welded together as shown infigure. Their thermal conductivities are \(K_1\) and \(K_2\) The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3\left(K_1 + K_2\right)}{2}\)
(2).
\(K_1 + K_2\)
(3).
\(2\left(K_1 + K_2\right)\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{K_1 + K_2}{2}\)
22.
A spherical black body with a radius of \(12\, \text{cm}\) radiates \(450\, \text{watt}\) power at \(500\, \text{K}\). If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be

(1).
\(450\)
(2).
\(1000\)
(3).
\(1800\)
(4).
\(225\)
23.
The bulk modulus of a spherical object is \('B'\). If it is subjected to uniform pressure \('p'\) the fractional decrease in radius is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{B}{3p}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3p}{B}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{p}{3B}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{P}{B}\)
24.
In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 KΩ. If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 KΩ, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is

(1).
15 and 200
(2).
150 and 15000
(3).
20 and 2000
(4).
200 and 1000
25.
The given electrical network is equivalent to

(1).
OR gate
(2).
NOR gate
(3).
NOT gate
(4).
AND gate
26.
Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
27.
The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t − 2\(t^2 \) and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s

(1).
\(\displaystyle 5 \, \frac{m}{s^2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle - 4 \, \frac{m}{s^2} \)
(3).
\(\displaystyle -8 \, \frac{m}{s^2}\)
(4).
\(0\)
28.
A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns per metre. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π2Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is

(1).
16 μC
(2).
32 μC
(3).
16 πμC
(4).
32 π μC
29.
Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0Ω each, two identical inductors with inductance L =2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf ε = 18V . The current i through the battery just after the switch closed is

(1).
0.2 A
(2).
none of the above
(3).
0 A
(4).
2 mA
30.
A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10mm above the water level on the other side. Mean while the water rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density ofthe oil is

(1).
\(650\, \text{Kg}\,m^{ −3}\)
(2).
\(425\, \text{Kg} \,m^{−3}\)
(3).
\(800\, \text{Kg}\, m^{ −3}\)
(4).
\(928\, \text{Kg} \,m^{ −3}\)
31.
A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio \(1 : 2 : 3\). They are connected in series and the new force constant is \(k'\).Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is \(k''\).Then \(k' : k''\) is

(1).
\(1 : 9\)
(2).
\(1 : 11\)
(3).
\(1 : 14\)
(4).
\(1 : 6\)
32.
A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of \(3\, \text{cm}\). When the particle is at \(2\, \text{cm}\) from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\sqrt{5}}{2π}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{4π}{\sqrt{5}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2π}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\sqrt{5}}{π}\)
33.
The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is

(1).
2
(2).
1
(3).
4
(4).
0.5
34.
Radioactive material A has decay constant \(8 \lambda\) and material B has decay constant \(\lambda\). Initially, they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material B to that A will be \(\frac{1}{e}\) ?

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\lambda}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{7 \lambda}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{8\lambda}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{9\lambda}\)
35.
The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are \(220\, Hz\) and \(260\, Hz\). What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

(1).
\(20\, Hz\)
(2).
\(30\, Hz\)
(3).
\(40\, Hz\)
(4).
\(10\,Hz\)
36.
Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of \(22\,ms^{−1}\) and \(16.5\,ms^{−1}\) respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency \(400\, Hz\). The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound is \(340\,ms^{−1}\)]

(1).
\(361\, Hz\)
(2).
\(411\, Hz\)
(3).
\(448\, Hz\)
(4).
\(350\, Hz\)
37.
A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system

(1).
decreases by a factor of 2
(2).
remains the same
(3).
increases by a factor of 2
(4).
increases by a factor of 4
38.
The diagrams below show regions of equipotential. A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram.

(1).
In all the four cases the work done is the same.
(2).
Minimum work is required to move q in figure (I)
(3).
Maximum work is required to move q in figure (II)
(4).
Maximum work is required to move q in figure (III)
39.
Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a mass-less and in extensible string. The whole system is suspended by a mass-less spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut are, respectively

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{g}{3}\), \(g\)
(2).
\(g\), \(g\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{g}{3}\), \(\displaystyle \frac{g}{3}\)
(4).
\(g\), \(\displaystyle \frac{g}{3}\)
40.
If \(θ_1\) and \(θ_2\) be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of dip \(\theta\) is given by

(1).
\(tan^2θ = tan^2θ_1 + tan^2θ_2\)
(2).
\(cot^2θ = cot^2θ_1 − cot^2θ_2\)
(3).
\(tan^2θ = tan^2θ_1 − tan^2θ_2\)
(4).
\(cot^2θ = cot^ 2θ_1 + cot^2θ_2\)
41.
A 250 turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 µA and subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the torque is

(1).
4.55 µJ
(2).
2.3 µJ
(3).
1.15 µJ
(4).
9.1 µJ
42.
The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to 'n'times its original length, its new resistance will be

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R}{M}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle n^2\,R\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R}{n^2}\)
(4).
\(nR\)
43.
A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of EMF because the method involves

(1).
potential gradients
(2).
a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
(3).
a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
(4).
cells
44.
In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is \(E_{rms}\,=\, 6V m^{−1}\).The peak value of the magnetic field is

(1).
\(2.83 \times 10^{−8}\,T\)
(2).
\(0.70 \times 10^{−8}\,T\)
(3).
\(4.23 \times 10^{−8}\,T\)
(4).
\(1.41 \times 10^{−8}\,T\)
45.
An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current I along the same direction as shown in figure. Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire ‘B’ is given by

(1).
\(\displaystyle\frac{2µ_0I^2}{πd}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle\frac{2µ_0I^2}{πd}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle\frac{µ_0I^2}{\sqrt{2}πd}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle\frac{µ_0I^2}{2πd}\)
46.
The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is

(1).
steam distillation
(2).
sublimation
(3).
chromatography
(4).
crystallization
47.
Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co3+ is

(1).
[Co(NH3)6 ]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
(2).
[Co(en)3)]3+, [Co(NH3)6 ]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
(3).
[Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3)]3+, [Co(NH3)6 ]3+
(4).
[Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6 ]3+, [Co(en)3)]3+
48.
Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct code.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
49.
Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order ?

(1).
N2, O2–
(2).
CO, NO
(3).
O2, NO+
(4).
CN-, CO
50.
HgCl2 and I 2 both when dissolved in water containing I- ions, the pair ofspecies formed is

(1).
Hg2I2, I-
(2).
HgI2, I3-
(3).
HgI2, I-
(4).
HgI42-, I3-
51.
The equilibrium constants of the following are:
N2 + 3H2 \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NH3 ------ K1
N2 + O2 \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NO ------ K2
H2 + \(\frac{\text{1}}{\text{2}}\)O2 \(\rightarrow \) H2O ------ K3
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:
2NH3 + \(\frac{\text{5}}{\text{2}}\)O2 \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NO + 3H2O, will be

(1).
\(\text{K}_2^3\, \text{K}_3\)/\(\text{K}_1\)
(2).
\(\text{K}_1\, \text{K}_3^3\)/\(\text{K}_2\)
(3).
\(\text{K}_2\, \text{K}_3^3\)/\(\text{K}_1\)
(4).
\(\text{K}_2\, \text{K}_3\)/\(\text{K}_1\)
52.
The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces

(1).
benzene
(2).
ethyl chlorides
(3).
iodobenzene
(4).
phenol
53.
Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
54.
Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine ?

(1).
Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
(2).
Carbylamine reaction
(3).
Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
(4).
Stephens reaction
55.
The IUPAC name of the compound is

(1).
3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
(2).
3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
(3).
5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
(4).
5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
56.
Which of the following is a sink for CO?

(1).
Plants
(2).
Haemoglobin
(3).
Micro-organisms present in the soil
(4).
Oceans
57.
Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating ?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
58.
Which of the following pair of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural ?

(1).
IF3 , XeF2
(2).
BeCl2, XeF2
(3).
Tel2, XeF2
(4).
IBr2- , XeF2
59.
Consider the reaction

Identify A, X, Y, and Z

(1).
A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone
(2).
A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate ion, Z-hydrazine
(3).
A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Z-Semicarbazide
(4).
A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone
60.
Which one is the most acidic compound ?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
61.
Name the gas that can readily decolourizes acidified KMnO4 solution.

(1).
P2O5
(2).
CO2
(3).
SO2
(4).
NO2
62.
Which one is the correct order of acidity ?

(1).
CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 –C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH
(2).
CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C ≡ CH
(3).
CH ≡ CH > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – - CH3
(4).
CH ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH3 – CH3
63.
Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10–4mol L–1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is

(1).
5.3 × 10–12
(2).
2.42 × 10–8
(3).
2.66 × 10–12
(4).
4.5 × 10–11
64.
With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true ?

(1).
Both bond angles and bond length remains same.
(2).
Bond angle remains same but bond length changes.
(3).
Bond angle changes but bond length remains same.
(4).
Both bond angle and bond length change.
65.
The correct statement regarding electrophile is

(1).
Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile.
(2).
Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
(3).
Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electro-phile
(4).
Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
66.
Which one is the wrong statement ?

(1).
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
(2).
de-Broglie's wavelength is given by \(\lambda\,=\,\frac{\text{h}}{\text{mv}}\)
where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle.
(3).
The uncertainty principle is \(\Delta \text{E} \times \Delta \text{t}\) ≥ \(\frac{\text{h}}{\text{4} \pi\)
(4).
Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
67.
The species, having bond angles of 120° is

(1).
BCl3
(2).
PH3
(3).
ClF3
(4).
NCl3
68.
The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is

(1).
II < I < III
(2).
II < III < I
(3).
III < I < II
(4).
III < II < I
69.
A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy \(\Delta \text{U}\) of the gas in joules will be

(1).
+505 J
(2).
1136.25 J
(3).
–500 J
(4).
–505 J
70.
A 20 litre container at of 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be
[Given : SrCO3(s) \(\rightleftharpoons\) SrO(s) + CO2 (g).
K = 1.6 atm]

(1).
2 litre
(2).
5 litre
(3).
10 litre
(4).
4 litre
71.
Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1).
Denaturation makes the proteins more active.
(2).
Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body.
(3).
Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white.
(4).
Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting.
72.
Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 \(\rightarrow\) 2XY is given below:
(i) X2 \(\rightarrow\) X + X (fast)
(ii) X + Y2 \(\rightleftharpoons\) XY + Y (slow)
(iii) X + Y \(\rightarrow\) XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be

(1).
1.5
(2).
1
(3).
2
(4).
0
73.
In which pair of ions both the species contain S – S bond ?

(1).
\(\text{S}_4 O_6^{2-}\), \(\text{S}_2 O_7^{2-}\)
(2).
\(\text{S}_2 O_7^{2-}\), \(\text{S}_2 O_3^{2-}\)
(3).
\(\text{S}_4 O_6^{2-}\), \(\text{S}_2 O_3^{2-}\)
(4).
\(\text{S}_2 O_7^{2-}\), \(\text{S}_2 O_8^{2-}\)
74.
Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as

(1).
antibiotic.
(2).
analgesic.
(3).
antiseptic.
(4).
antipyretic.
75.
It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that

(1).
Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidizing.
(2).
Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidizing.
(3).
Sn2+ is oxidizing while 4+is reducing.
(4).
Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing.
76.
For a given reaction, \(\Delta \text{H}\) = 35.5 kJ mol–1 and \(\Delta \text{S}\) = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous at :
[Assume that \(\Delta \text{H}\) and \(\Delta \text{S}\) do not vary with temperature]

(1).
T > 298 K
(2).
T < 425 K
(3).
T > 425 K
(4).
All temperatures
77.
If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf ) will be

(1).
unchanged.
(2).
doubled.
(3).
halved.
(4).
tripled.
78.
Which of the following is dependent on temperature ?

(1).
Weight percentage
(2).
Molality
(3).
Molarity
(4).
Mole fraction
79.
Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3–

(1).
It is dsp2 hybridized and square planar.
(2).
It is sp3d2 hybridized and octahedral.
(3).
It is sp3d2 hybridized and tetrahedral.
(4).
It is d2sp3 hybridized and octahedral.
80.
Which is the incorrect statement ?

(1).
Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal.
(2).
FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency defect.
(3).
Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky's defect.
(4).
NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semi-conductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal.
81.
Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN- ion. Silver is later recovered by

(1).
Displacement with Zn
(2).
Liquation
(3).
Distillation
(4).
Zone refining
82.
The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess istreated with the complexes:
CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl3 .4NH3 respectively is

(1).
2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(2).
1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(3).
3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(4).
3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
83.
Identify A and predict the type of reaction

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
84.
An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is

(1).
cobaltocene.
(2).
ruthenocene.
(3).
grignard's reagent.
(4).
ferrocene.
85.
The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to

(1).
4f and 5d levels being close in energies.
(2).
the radioactive nature of actinoids.
(3).
actinoid contraction.
(4).
5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies.
86.
The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family group and electronic configuration ?

(1).
Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d107s27p6
(2).
Halogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d107s27p5
(3).
Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14 6d107s27p2
(4).
Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d107s27p4
87.
A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10-2 s-1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g ?

(1).
693.0 second
(2).
238.6 second
(3).
138.6 second
(4).
346.5 second
88.
Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field ?

(1).
Li
(2).
Na
(3).
K
(4).
Rb
89.
In the electrochemical cell
Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01M)| |CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following, which one is relationship between E1 and E2
(Given, \(\frac{\text{RT}}{\text{F}}\) = 0.059)

(1).
E2 = 0 \(\neq\) E1
(2).
E1 = E2
(3).
E1 < E2
(4).
E1 > E2
90.
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(1).
Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme.
(2).
Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.
(3).
The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium.
(4).
Enzymes catalyze mainly bio-chemical reactions.
91.
The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of

(1).
Hargobind Khorana
(2).
Griffith
(3).
Hershey and Chase
(4).
Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
92.
In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called

(1).
mesenchymal cells.
(2).
ostia.
(3).
oscula.
(4).
choanocytes.
93.
During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate

(1).
the lagging strand away from the replication fork.
(2).
the leading strand towards the replication fork.
(3).
the lagging strand towards the replication fork.
(4).
the leading strand away from the replication fork.
94.
Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice ?

(1).
Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-peptidase
(2).
Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
(3).
Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(4).
Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
95.
Double fertilization is exhibited by

(1).
angiosperms.
(2).
gymnosperms.
(3).
algae.
(4).
fungi.
96.
Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are

(1).
Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
(2).
Haplontic, Diplontic
(3).
Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(4).
Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
97.
Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food.
Select the best option from the following statements:
(i) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
(ii) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment
(iii) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
(iv) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments

(1).
(ii), (iii) & (iv)
(2).
(i) & (ii)
(3).
(i), (iii) & (iv)
(4).
(i) & (iii)
98.
Attractants and rewards are required for

(1).
cleistogamy.
(2).
anemophily.
(3).
entomophily.
(4).
hydrophily.
99.
The vascular cambium normally gives rise to

(1).
periderm
(2).
phelloderm
(3).
primary phloem
(4).
secondary xylem
100.
A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check - up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent ?

(1).
Molars
(2).
Incisors
(3).
Canines
(4).
Premolars
101.
DNA fragments are

(1).
either positively or negatively charged depending on their size .
(2).
positively charged .
(3).
negatively charged .
(4).
neutral .
102.
Plants which produce characteristic pneu-matophores and show vivipary belongs to

(1).
hydrophytes.
(2).
mesophytes.
(3).
halophytes.
(4).
psammophytes.
103.
Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis ?

(1).
Condensation → arrangement at equator → centromere division → segregation → telophase
(2).
Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → crossing over → segregation → telophase
(3).
Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → arrangement at equator → centromere division → segregation → telophase
(4).
Condensation → crossing over → nuclear membrane disassembly → segregation → telophase
104.
A disease caused by an autosomal primary non- disjunction is

(1).
sickle cell anemia.
(2).
down's syndrome.
(3).
klinefelter's syndrome.
(4).
turner's syndrome.
105.
Spliceosomes are not found in cells of

(1).
bacteria.
(2).
plants.
(3).
fungi.
(4).
animals.
106.
The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of

(1).
saddle joint.
(2).
fibrous joint.
(3).
cartilaginous joint.
(4).
synovial joint.
107.
The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates

(1).
the DNA double helix is exposed.
(2).
transcription is occurring.
(3).
DNA replication is occurring.
(4).
the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre.
108.
Which of the following is made up of dead cells ?

(1).
Phloem
(2).
Xylem parenchyma
(3).
Collenchyma
(4).
Phellem
109.
Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs

(1).
Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(2).
Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(3).
Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(4).
Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca
110.
Adult human RBC's are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature ?
(i) They do not need to reproduce
(ii) They are somatic cells
(iii) They do not metabolise
(iv) All their internal space is available for oxygen

(1).
(ii) and (iii)
(2).
Only (iv)
(3).
Only (i)
(4).
(i), (iii) and (iv)
111.
Homozygous pure lines in cattle can be obtained by

(1).
mating of individuals of different species.
(2).
mating of related individuals of same breed.
(3).
mating of unrelated individuals of same breed.
(4).
mating of individuals of different breed.
112.
A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is

(1).
corpus allatum.
(2).
pineal gland.
(3).
corpus cardiacum.
(4).
corpus luteum.
113.
Viroids differ from viruses in having

(1).
RNA molecules without protein coat.
(2).
DNA molecules with protein coat.
(3).
DNA molecules without protein coat.
(4).
RNA molecules with protein coat.
114.
A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of

(1).
ADH.
(2).
renin.
(3).
atrial Natriuretic Factor.
(4).
aldosterone.
115.
An example of colonial alga is

(1).
Spirogyra.
(2).
Chlorella.
(3).
Volvox.
(4).
Ulothrix.
116.
The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is

(1).
pericarp.
(2).
perisperm.
(3).
cotyledon.
(4).
endosperm.
117.
Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them ?

(1).
Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
(2).
Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
(3).
Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
(4).
Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
118.
Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) and select the correct option.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
119.
Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea ?

(1).
Pod – Inflated or Constricted
(2).
Stem – Tall or Dwarf
(3).
Trichomes – Glandular or Non-glandular
(4).
Seed – Green or Yellow
120.
Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood

(1).
It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls.
(2).
Organic compounds are deposited in it.
(3).
It is highly durable.
(4).
It conducts water and minerals efficiently.
121.
Mycorrhizae are the example of

(1).
mutualism.
(2).
fungistasis.
(3).
amensalism.
(4).
antibiosis.
122.
Which of the following RNA's is the most abundant in animal cell ?

(1).
mi-RNA
(2).
r-RNA
(3).
t-RNA
(4).
m-RNA
123.
The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called

(1).
postproduction processing.
(2).
upstream processing.
(3).
downstream processing.
(4).
bioprocessing.
124.
Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen ?

(1).
Nostoc
(2).
Bacillus
(3).
Pseudomonas
(4).
Mycoplasma
125.
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell ?

(1).
Glycocalyx
(2).
Cell wall
(3).
Nuclear membrane
(4).
Plasma membrane
126.
With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1).
Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 -enriched atmosphere for higher yield.
(2).
Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight.
(3).
Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 0.05% can enhance CO2fixation rate.
(4).
C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum.
127.
Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes ?

(1).
Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(2).
Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
(3).
Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(4).
Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
128.
If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered ?

(1).
333
(2).
1
(3).
11
(4).
33
129.
Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when

(1).
K < N
(2).
The value of 'r' approaches zero
(3).
K = N
(4).
K > N
130.
Select the mismatch from the following

(1).
Equisetum – Homosporous
(2).
Pinus – Dioecious
(3).
Cycas – Dioecious
(4).
Salvinia – Heterosporous
131.
Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur ?

(1).
Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
(2).
Chromosomes will not condense
(3).
Chromosomes will be fragmented
(4).
Chromosomes will not segregate
132.
Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass ?

(1).
Lake ecosystem
(2).
Forest ecosystem
(3).
Grassland ecosystem
(4).
Pond ecosystem
133.
Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of

(1).
Chlamydomonas.
(2).
Marchantia.
(3).
Fucus.
(4).
Funaria.
134.
Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because

(1).
muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.
(2).
growth hormone becomes inactive in adults.
(3).
epiphyseal plates close after adole scence.
(4).
bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults.
135.
Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime.
Select the best option from the following statements :
(i) Frog is a poikilotherm
(ii) Frog does not have any coronary circulation
(iii) Heart is "myogenic" in nature
(iv) Heart is autoexcitable

(1).
(iii) & (iv)
(2).
Only (iii)
(3).
Only (iv)
(4).
(i) & (ii)
136.
Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections ?

(1).
Physiological immune response
(2).
Autoimmune response
(3).
Cell-mediated immune response
(4).
Hormonal immune response
137.
Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement.

(1).
Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules. Options
(2).
Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
(3).
Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
(4).
Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.
138.
An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is

(1).
pharynx without gill slits.
(2).
absence of notochord.
(3).
ventral tubular nerve cord.
(4).
pharynx with gill slits.
139.
Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP ?

(1).
Mitochondrion
(2).
Lysosome
(3).
Ribosome
(4).
Chloroplast
140.
Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of

(1).
Expiratory Reserve Volume.
(2).
Residual Volume.
(3).
Inspiratory Reserve Volume.
(4).
Tidal Volume.
141.
Which of the following are not polymeric ?

(1).
Lipids
(2).
Nucleic acids
(3).
Proteins
(4).
Polysaccharides
142.
Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by

(1).
bat
(2).
water
(3).
bee
(4).
wind
143.
Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in

(1).
Temperate Forest.
(2).
Tropical Savannah.
(3).
Tropical Rain Forest.
(4).
Grassland.
144.
Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in

(1).
C3 and C4 plants
(2).
C3 plants
(3).
C4 plants
(4).
C2 plants
145.
Which one from the given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments ?

(1).
1870-1877
(2).
1856-1863
(3).
1840-1850
(4).
1857 - 1869
146.
Select the mismatch

(1).
Rhizobium – Alfalfa
(2).
Frankia – Alnus
(3).
Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza
(4).
Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer
147.
In case of a couple, where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation ?

(1).
Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(2).
Intrauterine transfer
(3).
Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(4).
Artificial Insemination
148.
Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals ?

(1).
Trygon, Whales, Seals
(2).
Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
(3).
Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(4).
Whales, Dolphins, Seals
149.
Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into

(1).
embryo.
(2).
ovule.
(3).
endosperm.
(4).
embryo sac.
150.
Root hairs develop from the region of

(1).
Meristematic activity
(2).
Maturation
(3).
Elongation
(4).
Root cap
151.
A dioecious flowering plant prevents both

(1).
cleistogamy and xenogamy.
(2).
autogamy and xenogamy.
(3).
autogamy and geitonogamy.
(4).
geitonogamy and xenogamy.
152.
The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

(1).
intestine.
(2).
heart.
(3).
stomach.
(4).
kidneys.
153.
What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?

(1).
Negatively charged fragments do not move
(2).
The larger the fragment size , the farther it moves
(3).
The smaller the fragment size , the farther it moves
(4).
Positively charged fragments move to farther end
154.
Which of the following represents order of ' Horse ' ?

(1).
Ferus
(2).
Equidae
(3).
Perissodactyla
(4).
Caballus
155.
Which statement is wrong for Kreb's cycle ?

(1).
The cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group ( acetyl CoA ) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid .
(2).
There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+ .
(3).
There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2 .
(4).
During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid , a molecule of GTP is synthesized .
156.
Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents

(1).
Stabilizing ; followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows .
(2).
Stabilizing ; selection as it stabilizes this character in the population .
(3).
Directional ; as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction .
(4).
Disruptive ; as it splits the population into two , one yielding higher output and the other lower output .
157.
The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as

(1).
Restoration zone .
(2).
Core zone .
(3).
Buffer zone.
(4).
Transition zone .
158.
Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on

(1).
post - synaptic membrane .
(2).
membranes of synaptic vesicles .
(3).
pre - synaptic membrane .
(4).
tips of axons .
159.
The water potential of pure water is

(1).
more than one .
(2).
zero .
(3).
less than zero .
(4).
more than zero but less than one .
160.
Capacitation occurs in

(1).
female Reproductive tract .
(2).
rete testis .
(3).
epididymis .
(4).
vas deferens .
161.
The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's is

(1).
they inhibit ovulation .
(2).
they suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms .
(3).
they inhibit gametogenesis .
(4).
they make uterus unsuitable for implantation .
162.
A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as

(1).
structural gene .
(2).
selectable marker.
(3).
vector .
(4).
plasmid .
163.
Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols ?

(1).
They have negative impact on agricultural land .
(2).
They are harmful to human health .
(3).
They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns .
(4).
They cause increased agricultural productivity .
164.
Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1).
The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes .
(2).
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water .
(3).
The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water .
(4).
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water .
165.
Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids ?

(1).
Sludge treatment
(2).
Tertiary treatment
(3).
Secondary treatment
(4).
Primary treatment
166.
GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on

(1).
posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin .
(2).
anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin .
(3).
anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH .
(4).
posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH
167.
Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture ?

(1).
Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
(2).
Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
(3).
Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
(4).
Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
168.
The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible ?

(1).
4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2).
3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3).
3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4).
4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
169.
Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time

(1).
population Growth equation.
(2).
ecological Biodiversity.
(3).
laws of limiting factor.
(4).
species area relationships.
170.
DNA replication in bacteria occurs

(1).
just before transcription.
(2).
during S-phase.
(3).
within nucleolus.
(4).
prior to fission.
171.
MALT constitutes about ________________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

(1).
10%
(2).
50%
(3).
20%
(4).
70%
172.
In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of

(1).
leaf.
(2).
stipules.
(3).
adventitious root.
(4).
stem.
173.
Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of

(1).
gibberellic acid.
(2).
cytokinins.
(3).
ethylene.
(4).
auxins.
174.
Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions ?

(1).
Mycobacteria
(2).
Archaebacteria
(3).
Eubacteria
(4).
Cyanobacteria
175.
Coconut fruit is a

(1).
capsule.
(2).
drupe.
(3).
berry.
(4).
nut.
176.
The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with

(1).
ethidium bromide.
(2).
bromophenol blue.
(3).
acetocarmine.
(4).
aniline blue.
177.
Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation

(1).
X = 24, Y = 12 - True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side
(2).
X = 12, Y = 7 - True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum
(3).
X = 12, Y = 5 - True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends
(4).
X = 24, Y = 7 - True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side
178.
Myelin sheath is produced by

(1).
Osteoclasts and Astrocytes.
(2).
Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes.
(3).
Astrocytes and Schwann Cells.
(4).
Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts.
179.
Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete antibacterial lysozyme ?

(1).
Kupffer cells
(2).
Argentaffin cells
(3).
Paneth cells
(4).
Zymogen cells
180.
Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants ?

(1).
Himalayan region
(2).
Wildlife Safari parks
(3).
Biodiversity hot spots
(4).
Amazon rainforest