Home >> NEET - 2018
Welcome Dear Student and Shine in NEET with Shine NEET SmartPrep!.
All NEET - 2018 questions are displayed here. But you would be able to try only a sub set of these questions in your free trial.
We recommend you explore the full system and go for a one time subscription if you are satisfied.
Try it out and feel the difference!!

Subscribe to full version of smart test prep solution for the same cost of a static and boring printed question bank!

Limited-Time Offer: Get all this for just ₹1199

Why settle for outdated methods when you can prepare smarter, track better, and score higher?
Subscribe Now & Take Control of Your NEET Prep !

Subscribe
Your Full Test Performance Summary
You are yet to try out this test. Performance Summary not avialable !
Questions Available: 180
Questions Attempted: 0
Number of Attempts: 0
Correct Attempts: 0
Total Time Spent: 00:00
Avg Time Per Question: 00:00
Start Test
1.
An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

(1).
30 cm towards the mirror
(2).
36 cm away from the mirror
(3).
30 cm away from the mirror
(4).
36 cm towards the mirror
2.
A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D.The height h is equal to

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2} D\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle D\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{7}{5} D\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{4} D\)
3.
Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ‘μ’. At a particular angle of incidence ‘i ’, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?

(1).
\(i=sin^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\mu}\right)\)
(2).
Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence
(3).
Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence
(4).
\(i=tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\mu}\right)\)
4.
A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure.

The wedge is given an acceleration a towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

(1).
\(\displaystyle a = \frac{g}{cosec \, θ}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle a = \frac{g}{sin \, θ}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle a = g\, cos \, θ\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle a = g\, tan \, θ\)
5.
A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

(1).
0.5
(2).
0.25
(3).
0.8
(4).
0.4
6.
The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is \(30^\circ\). One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is

(1).
\(30^\circ\)
(2).
\(45^\circ\)
(3).
\(60^\circ\)
(4).
\(zero\)
7.
The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions \(A\), \(B\) and \(C\) are \(K_A\), \(K_B\) and \(K_C\), respectively. \(AC\) is the major axis and \(SB\) is perpendicular to \(AC\) at the position of the Sun \(S\) as shown in the figure. Then

(1).
\(K_A < K_B < K_C\)
(2).
\(K_A > K_B > K_C\)
(3).
\(K_B < K_A < K_C\)
(4).
\(K_B > K_A > K_C\)
8.
If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?

(1).
Raindrops will fall faster
(2).
Walking on the ground would become more difficult
(3).
Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease
(4).
′g′ on the Earth will not change
9.
In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation "d" between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength \(\lambda\) of the light used is 5896 Å and distance "D" between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same l and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

(1).
2.1 mm
(2).
1.9 mm
(3).
1.8 mm
(4).
1.7 mm
10.
A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of -0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

(1).
0.521 cm
(2).
0.525 cm
(3).
0.053 cm
(4).
0.529 cm
11.
An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angularresolution, when it has an objective lens of

(1).
large focal length and largediameter
(2).
large focal length and smalldiameter
(3).
small focal length and largediameter
(4).
small focal length and smalldiameter
12.
A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (\(1.013 \times 10^5 Nm^{-2}\) ) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample,

(1).
42.2 J
(2).
208.7 J
(3).
104.3 J
(4).
84.5 J
13.
A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (\(K_t\)) as well as rotational kinetic energy (\(K_r\)) simultaneously. The ratio \(K_t\,:\,\)(\( K_t\, +\, K_ r\)) for the sphere is

(1).
7:10
(2).
5:7
(3).
10:7
(4).
2:5
14.
A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space.The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which ofthe following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?

(1).
Angular velocity
(2).
moment of inertia
(3).
Rotational kinetic energy
(4).
Angular momentum
15.
Three objects, A (a solid sphere), B (a thin circular disk) and C (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

(1).
\(\text{W}_ C\, >\, \text{W}_B\, >\, \text{W}_A \)
(2).
\(\text{W}_A\, >\, \text{W}_B\, >\, \text{W}_C\)
(3).
\(\text{W}_B\, >\, \text{ W}_ A\, >\, \text{W }_C\)
(4).
\(\text{W}_A\, >\, \text{W}_C\, >\, \text{W}_B\)
16.
The volume (V) of a monoatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{3}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{3}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{5}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{7}\)
17.
The moment of the force, \(\vec{F} = 4\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} − 6\hat{k}\) at (2, 0, −3), about the point (2, −2, −2), is given by

(1).
\(- 8\hat{i} − 4\hat{j} − 7\hat{k}\)
(2).
\(−4\hat{i} −\hat{j} − 8\hat{k}\)
(3).
\(−7\hat{i} − 8\hat{j} − 4\hat{k}\)
(4).
\(−7\hat{i} − 4\hat{j} − 8\hat{k}\)
18.
At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere?
(Given: mass of oxygen molecule,\(m = 2.76 × 10^−{26}\, kg\) ,Boltzmann’s constant\(k_B = 1.38 10^{-23} J K^{ −1}\))

(1).
\(5.016 \times 10^4\, K\)
(2).
\(8.326 \times 10^4\, K\)
(3).
\(2.508 \times 10^4\, K\)
(4).
\(1.254 \times 10^4\, K\)
19.
An electron of mass m with an initial velocity \(\vec{v}\,=v_0\hat{i} \left( v_0\,>\,0 \right)\) enters an electric field \(\vec{E}\,=\,-\vec{E}_0 \hat{i} \left ( E_0 \,=\, constant\, >\, 0 \right )\) at t = 0. If \(λ_0\) is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{λ_0}{\left(1+\frac{eE_0}{mv_0}t\right)}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle λ_0 \left(1+\frac{eE_0}{mv_0}t \right)\)
(3).
\(λ_0\,t\)
(4).
\(λ_0\)
20.
When the light of frequency \(2v_0\) (where \(v_0\) is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is \(v_1\) . When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to \(5v_0\) , the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is \(v_2\) . The ratio of \(v_1\) to \(v_2\) is

(1).
1 : 2
(2).
1 : 4
(3).
4 : 1
(4).
2 : 1
21.
A small sphere of radius \('r'\) falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

(1).
\(r^3\)
(2).
\(r^2\)
(3).
\(r^5\)
(4).
\(r^4\)
22.
Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume.The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by \(\Delta l \) on applying a force \(F\) , how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?

(1).
\(9 F \)
(2).
\(6 F \)
(3).
\(4 F\)
(4).
\(F\)
23.
The power radiated by a black body is \(P\) and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, \(\lambda_0\). If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength \(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4} \lambda_0\), the power radiated by it becomes \(n\,p\). The value of n is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{4}{3}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{256}{81}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{81}{256}\)
24.
In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
25.
In the circuit shown in the figure,

the input voltage \(V_i\) is 20 V , \(V_{BE}\) = 0 and \(V_{CE}\) = 0. The values of \(I_B\), \(I_C\)and β are given by

(1).
\(I_B = 40µA, I_C = 10mA, β = 250\)
(2).
\(I_B = 25µA, I_C = 5mA, β = 200\)
(3).
\(I_B = 20µA, I_C = 5mA, β = 250\)
(4).
\(I_B = 40µA, I_C = 5mA, β = 125\)
26.
In a p − n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

(1).
affects only reverse resistance
(2).
affects only forward resistance
(3).
does not affect resistance of p − n junction
(4).
affects the overall V - I characteristics of p − n junction
27.
The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ , when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

(1).
0.138 H
(2).
138.88 H
(3).
1.389 H
(4).
13.89 H
28.
An inductor 20 mH , a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf,
V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

(1).
0.79 W
(2).
0.43 W
(3).
2.74 W
(4).
1.13 W
29.
A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is \(20ms^{−2}\) at a distance of 5m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

(1).
\(2πs\)
(2).
\(πs\)
(3).
\(2s\)
(4).
\(1s\)
30.
The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is

(1).
2 : − 1
(2).
1 : − 1
(3).
1:01
(4).
1 : −2
31.
For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

(1).
30
(2).
10
(3).
20
(4).
15
32.
A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of \(27^\circ C\) two successive resonances are produced at \(20\,cm\) and \(73\,cm\) of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is \(320\,Hz\), the velocity of sound in air at \(27^\circ C\) is

(1).
\(330\,ms^{−1}\)
(2).
\(339\,ms^{−1}\)
(3).
\(350\,ms^{−1}\)
(4).
\(300\,ms^{−1}\)
33.
The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is \(20\,cm\), the length of the open organ pipe is

(1).
\(13.2\,cm\)
(2).
\(8\,cm\)
(3).
\(12.5\,cm\)
(4).
\(16\,cm\)
34.
An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

(1).
smaller
(2).
5 times greater
(3).
10 times greater
(4).
equal
35.
The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is

(1).
Independent of the distance between the plates
(2).
Linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
(3).
Proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates
(4).
Inversely proportional to the distance between the plates
36.
A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field \(\vec{E}\). Due to the force q \(\vec{E}\), its velocity increases from 0 to 6 ms−1 in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

(1).
2 ms−1 , 4ms−1
(2).
1ms−1 , 3ms−1
(3).
1ms−1 , 3.5ms−1
(4).
1.5ms−1 , 3ms−1
37.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1).
Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.
(2).
Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.
(3).
Frictional force opposes the relativemotion.
(4).
Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.
38.
A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

(1).
The current source
(2).
The magnetic field
(3).
The lattice structure of the material of the rod
(4).
The induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field
39.
The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

(1).
12.5%
(2).
6.25%
(3).
20%
(4).
26.80%
40.
A set of n equal resistors, of value R each, are connected in series to abattery of emf E and internal resistance R. The current drawn is I .Now, the n resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I . The value of n is

(1).
10
(2).
11
(3).
20
(4).
9
41.
A battery consists of a variable number n of identical cells (havinginternal resistance r each ) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Whichof the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
42.
A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

(1).
Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver
(2).
Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver
(3).
Yellow - Green - Violet - Gold
(4).
Green - Orange - Violet - Gold
43.
An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity \(\vec{v}=v\,\hat{i}\). The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along

(1).
−z direction
(2).
+z direction
(3).
−y direction
(4).
−x direction
44.
A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kgm−1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of \(30^\circ\) with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

(1).
7.14 A
(2).
5.98 A
(3).
14.76 A
(4).
11.32 A
45.
Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1).
40 Ω
(2).
25 Ω
(3).
250 Ω
(4).
500 Ω
46.
Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity ?

(1).
NO
(2).
N2O
(3).
NO2
(4).
N2O5
47.
Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied ?

(1).
CO2
(2).
O2
(3).
H2
(4).
NH3
48.
In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

(1).
Three
(2).
Four
(3).
Two
(4).
One
49.
The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

(1).
B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(2).
B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(3).
B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4).
B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
50.
Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
51.
The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are

(1).
tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic.
(2).
square planar geometry and paramag-netic.
(3).
tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic.
(4).
square planar geometry and diamagnetic.
52.
Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridization sp2, sp2, sp, sp from left to right atoms ?

(1).
CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(2).
CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(3).
CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH
(4).
HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH
53.
Among CaH2 , BeH2, BaH2 , the order of ionic character is

(1).
BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(2).
BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(3).
CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(4).
BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
54.
Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below

Then the species undergoing dispro-portionation is

(1).
\(\text{HB}_rO\)
(2).
\(\text{Br}_2\)
(3).
\(\text{BrO}_4^-\)
(4).
\(\text{BrO}_3^-\)
55.
In which case is number of molecules of water maximum ?

(1).
10–3 mol of water
(2).
0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K r
(3).
0.18 g of water
(4).
18 mL of wate
56.
The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

(1).
C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
(2).
C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
(3).
C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(4).
C2H5OH, C2H6 , C2H5Cl
57.
Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is

(1).
CH4
(2).
CH3 – CH3
(3).
CH2 = CH2
(4).
CH ≡ CH
58.
The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions:

The product 'C' is

(1).
p-bromotoluene.
(2).
3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene.
(3).
o-bromotoluene.
(4).
m-bromotoluene.
59.
A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

(1).
4.4
(2).
2.8
(3).
3.0
(4).
1.4
60.
The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

(1).
amylose is made up of glucose and galactose.
(2).
amylopectin have 1 → 4 \(\alpha\) -linkage and 1 → 6 \(\beta \) - linkage.
(3).
amylose have 1 → 4 \(\alpha \) - inkage and 1 → 6 \(\beta \) - linkage.
(4).
amylopectin have 1 → 4 \(\alpha \) - linkage and 1 → 6 \(\alpha \) - linkage.
61.
Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature ?

(1).
CaO
(2).
BaO
(3).
BeO
(4).
MgO
62.
Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

(1).
in acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.
(2).
in absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.
(3).
in electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.
(4).
inspite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.
63.
Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1).
They contain strong covalents bonds in their polymer chains.
(2).
Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(3).
They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.
(4).
They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.
64.
Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations:
A. \( \text{60 mL} \frac{\text{M}}{\text{10}}\)HCl + \( \text{40 mL} \frac{\text{M}}{\text{10}}\)NaOH
B. \( \text{55 mL} \frac{\text{M}}{\text{10}}\)HCl + \( \text{45 mL} \frac{\text{M}}{\text{10}}\)NaOH
C. A. \( \text{75 mL} \frac{\text{M}}{\text{5}}\)HCl + \( \text{25 mL} \frac{\text{M}}{\text{5}}\)NaOH
D. \( \text{100 mL} \frac{\text{M}}{\text{10}}\)HCl + \( \text{100 mL} \frac{\text{M}}{\text{10}}\)NaOH
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?

(1).
C
(2).
D
(3).
A
(4).
B
65.
On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ?

(1).
The sign of charge on the ion alone
(2).
Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion
(3).
Size of the ion alone
(4).
The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone
66.
The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3gL–1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)

(1).
1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
(2).
1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
(3).
1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
(4).
1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
67.
Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this compound is

(1).
Mg3X2
(2).
Mg2X
(3).
MgX2
(4).
Mg2X3
68.
Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3 \sqrt{3}}{4 \sqrt{2}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{4 \sqrt{3}}{3 \sqrt{2}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
69.
Which one is a wrong statement ?

(1).
The value of m for dz2 is zero.
(2).
The electronic configuration of N atom is
(3).
An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.
(4).
Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero.
70.
Consider the following species:
CN+, CN–, NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond order ?

(1).
CN
(2).
CN+
(3).
CN–
(4).
NO
71.
Which of the following statements is not true for halogens ?

(1).
Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.
(2).
All halogens except fluorine show positive oxidation states. .
(3).
All are oxidizing agents.
(4).
All form monobasic oxyacids
72.
Which one of the following elements is unable to form \(\text{MF}_^{3-} ion ?

(1).
In
(2).
B
(3).
Al
(4).
Ga
73.
Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina ?

(1).
Cu
(2).
Mg
(3).
Zn
(4).
Fe
74.
The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

(1).
NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
(2).
HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(3).
HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(4).
HNO3 , NO, N2 , NH4Cl
75.
In the reaction, the electrophile involved is

(1).
Dichlorocarbene (\(\text{:CCl}_2\))
(2).
Dichloromethyl anion (\(\text{C}^+\text{HCl}_2\))
(3).
Formyl cation (\(\text{C}^+\text{HO}\)
(4).
Dichloromethyl cation (\(\text{C}^+\text{HCl}_2\))
76.
Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

(1).
formation of intermolecular H-bonding.
(2).
more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction.
(3).
formation of carboxylate ion.
(4).
formation of intramolecular H-bonding.
77.
Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.
A and Y are respectively :

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
78.
Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO) 5 is

(1).
Dinuclear
(2).
Trinuclear
(3).
Mononuclear
(4).
Tetranuclear
79.
Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?

(1).
\(\text{MnO}_4^{2-}\)
(2).
\(\text{MnO}_4^{-}\)
(3).
\(\text{Cr}_2 \text{O}_7^{2-}\)
(4).
\(\text{CrO}_4^{2-}\)
80.
The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is

(1).
linkage isomerism
(2).
ionization isomerism
(3).
coordination isomerism
(4).
geometrical isomerism
81.
Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
82.
Which of the following compounds can form a zwitter ion ?

(1).
Glycine
(2).
Benzoic acid
(3).
Acetanilide
(4).
Aniline
83.
For the redox reaction

The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are

(1).
\(\text{MNO}_4^- \rightarrow \) 5, \(\text{C}_2 \text{O}_4^{2-} \rightarrow \) 16, \(\text{H1}^+ \rightarrow \) 2
(2).
\(\text{MNO}_4^- \rightarrow \) 2, \(\text{C}_2 \text{O}_4^{2-} \rightarrow \) 16, \(\text{H1}^+ \rightarrow \) 5
(3).
\(\text{MNO}_4^- \rightarrow \) 2, \(\text{C}_2 \text{O}_4^{2-} \rightarrow \) 5, \(\text{H1}^+ \rightarrow \) 16
(4).
\(\text{MNO}_4^- \rightarrow \) 16, \(\text{C}_2 \text{O}_4^{2-} \rightarrow \) 5, \(\text{H1}^+ \rightarrow \) 2
84.
The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to

(1).
forces of attraction between the gas molecules.
(2).
electric field present between the gas molecules.
(3).
volume of the gas molecules.
(4).
density of the gas molecules.
85.
Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction,
A2(g) + B2(g) \(\rightleftharpoons \) X2(g) \(\Delta_r\)H = -XkJ?

(1).
High temperature and low pressure
(2).
High temperature and high pressure
(3).
Low temperature and low pressure
(4).
Low temperature and high pressure
86.
The bond disssociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio 1 : 0.5 : 1. \(\Delta\)H for the formation of XY is -200 KJ mol-. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be

(1).
400 kJ mol–1
(2).
800 kJ mol–1
(3).
100 kJ mol–1
(4).
200 kJ mol–1
87.
When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

(1).
remains unchanged
(2).
is tripled
(3).
is doubled
(4).
is halved
88.
Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable ?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
89.
Which of the following is correct with respect to -1 effect of yje substituents? (R = alkyl)

(1).
-NR2 > -OR > -F
(2).
-NH2 > _OR > -F
(3).
-NR2 < -OR < -F
(4).
-NH2 < _OR < -F
90.
The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that

(1).
the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations.
(2).
a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed.
(3).
the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0 ; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]0 .
(4).
the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.
91.
Select the correct match

(1).
Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod - lac operon
(2).
Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl - Pisum sativum
(3).
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase - TMV
(4).
Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae
92.
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

(1).
Sporopollenin
(2).
Oil content
(3).
Cellulosic intine
(4).
Pollenkitt
93.
Stomatal movement is not affected by

(1).
CO2 concentration.
(2).
O2 concentration.
(3).
light.
(4).
temperature.
94.
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

(1).
It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
(2).
It takes part in spindle formation
(3).
It is a membrane-bound structure
(4).
Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells
95.
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

(1).
Saccharomyces.
(2).
Agaricus.
(3).
Alternaria.
(4).
Neurospora.
96.
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?

(1).
Viola
(2).
Banana
(3).
Yucca
(4).
Hydrilla
97.
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(1).
–160°C
(2).
–196°C
(3).
–80°C
(4).
–120°C
98.
Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells ?

(1).
Calcium
(2).
Potassium
(3).
Sodium
(4).
Magnesium
99.
Plants having little or no secondary growth are

(1).
cycads.
(2).
conifers.
(3).
deciduous angiosperms.
(4).
grasses.
100.
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

(1).
nucleosome.
(2).
plastidome.
(3).
polyhedral bodies.
(4).
polysome.
101.
Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics ?

(1).
Amensalism
(2).
Parasitism
(3).
Mutualism
(4).
Commensalism
102.
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

(1).
both sons and daughters.
(2).
only grandchildren.
(3).
only sons.
(4).
only daughters.
103.
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is

(1).
minor mutations.
(2).
phenotypic variations.
(3).
saltation.
(4).
multiple step mutations.
104.
All of the following are part of an operon except

(1).
a promoter.
(2).
an enhancer.
(3).
structural genes.
(4).
an operator.
105.
Niche is

(1).
(a) the functional role played by the organism where it lives.
(2).
(b) the range of temperature that the organism needs to live.
(3).
(c) the physical space where an organism lives.
(4).
(d) all the biological factors in the organism's environment.
106.
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?

(1).
O3
(2).
SO2
(3).
CO2
(4).
CO
107.
In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen ?

(1).
O
(2).
Fe
(3).
Cl
(4).
C
108.
World Ozone Day is celebrated on

(1).
22nd April
(2).
16th September
(3).
21st April
(4).
5th June
109.
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data ?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g Primary producer : 10 g

(1).
Upright pyramid of biomass
(2).
Upright pyramid of numbers
(3).
Pyramid of energy
(4).
Inverted pyramid of biomass
110.
Natality refers to

(1).
number of individuals entering a habitat.
(2).
number of individuals leaving the habitat.
(3).
birth rate.
(4).
death rate.
111.
Offsets are produced by

(1).
parthenogenesis.
(2).
parthenocarpy.
(3).
mitotic divisions.
(4).
meiotic divisions.
112.
The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

(1).
virus.
(2).
plant.
(3).
bacterium.
(4).
fungus.
113.
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(1).
T. H. Morgan - Linkage
(2).
XO type sex determination - Grasshopper
(3).
ABO blood grouping - Co-dominance
(4).
Starch synthesis in pea - Multiple alleles
114.
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?

(1).
Papaya
(2).
Mango
(3).
Jackfruit
(4).
Bamboo species
115.
Select the correct statement.

(1).
Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
(2).
Spliceosomes take part in translation.
(3).
Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.
(4).
Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.
116.
The Golgi complex participates in

(1).
activation of amino acid.
(2).
respiration in bacteria.
(3).
formation of secretory vesicles.
(4).
fatty acid breakdown.
117.
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

(1).
zygotene.
(2).
diakinesis.
(3).
diplotene.
(4).
pachytene.
118.
Stomata in grass leaf are

(1).
barrel shaped.
(2).
rectangular.
(3).
kidney shaped.
(4).
dumb-bell shaped.
119.
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis ?

(1).
Oxygen
(2).
NADPH
(3).
NADH
(4).
ATP
120.
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

(1).
Oscillatoria
(2).
Nostoc
(3).
Mycobacterium
(4).
Saccharomyces
121.
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

(1).
carbonyl and hydroxyl.
(2).
carbonyl and phosphate.
(3).
carbonyl and methyl.
(4).
hydroxyl and methyl.
122.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
123.
Which one is wrongly matched?

(1).
Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(2).
Gemma cups – Marchantia
(3).
Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(4).
Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
124.
Winged pollen grains are present in

(1).
Pinus.
(2).
Mango.
(3).
Cycas.
(4).
Mustard.
125.
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

(1).
pBR 322
(2).
λ phage
(3).
Ti plasmid
(4).
Retrovirus
126.
A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

(1).
basmati.
(2).
lerma Rojo.
(3).
sharbati sonora.
(4).
Co-667.
127.
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

(1).
Bioexploitation.
(2).
Biodegradation.
(3).
Biopiracy.
(4).
Bio-infringement
128.
Select the correct match:

(1).
G. Mendel – Transformation
(2).
T.H. Morgan – Transduction
(3).
F2 × Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
(4).
Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
129.
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

(1).
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(2).
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(3).
Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(4).
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
130.
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

(1).
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
(2).
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM).
(3).
Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
(4).
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
131.
What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

(1).
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
(2).
It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
(3).
It functions as an electron carrier.
(4).
It functions as an enzyme.
132.
In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?

(1).
Both ferric and ferrous
(2).
Free element
(3).
Ferrous
(4).
Ferric
133.
Double fertilisation is

(1).
syngamy and triple fusion.
(2).
fusion of two male gametes with one egg.
(3).
fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei.
(4).
fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs.
134.
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

(1).
Chara.
(2).
Cycas.
(3).
Nostoc.
(4).
Green sulphur bacteria.
135.
Pneumatophores occur in

(1).
submerged hydrophytes.
(2).
carnivorous plants.
(3).
free-floating hydrophytes.
(4).
halophytes.
136.
Select the wrong statement.

(1).
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.
(2).
Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.
(3).
Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
(4).
Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.
137.
Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

(1).
axillary meristems.
(2).
phellogen.
(3).
vascular cambium.
(4).
apical meristems.
138.
Sweet potato is a modified

(1).
rhizome.
(2).
tap root.
(3).
adventitious root.
(4).
stem.
139.
Which of the following statements is correct?

(1).
Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
(2).
Horsetails are Gymnosperms.
(3).
Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
(4).
Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in Gymnosperms.
140.
Casparian strips occur in

(1).
endodermis.
(2).
cortex.
(3).
pericycle.
(4).
epidermis.
141.
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

(1).
free ribosomes and RER.
(2).
nucleic acids and SER.
(3).
DNA and RNA.
(4).
proteins and lipids.
142.
Which of these statements is incorrect?

(1).
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
(2).
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
(3).
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
(4).
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
143.
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

(1).
Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(2).
Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(3).
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4).
Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
144.
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

(1).
Phospholipid synthesis
(2).
Cleavage of signal peptide
(3).
Protein glycosylation
(4).
Protein folding
145.
Select the incorrect match

(1).
Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians
(2).
Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes
(3).
Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(4).
Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents
146.
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

(1).
Estriol
(2).
Estradiol
(3).
Ecdysone
(4).
Epinephrine
147.
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its functions?

(1).
Corpus callosum – band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
(2).
Hypothalamus – production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
(3).
Limbic system – consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
(4).
Medulla oblongata – controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
148.
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

(1).
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(2).
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(3).
Progesterone and Aldosterone
(4).
Aldosterone and Prolactin
149.
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

(1).
smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body.
(2).
smooth muscles attached to the iris.
(3).
ligaments attached to the iris.
(4).
ligaments attached to the ciliary body.
150.
In a growing population of a country,

(1).
pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
(2).
reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
(3).
reproductive individuals are less than the post- reproductive individuals.
(4).
pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
151.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

(1).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
152.
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?

(1).
Leaves
(2).
Roots
(3).
Latex
(4).
Flowers
153.
All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ conservation’ except

(1).
seed banks.
(2).
botanical gardens.
(3).
sacred groves.
(4).
wildlife safari parks.
154.
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

(1).
Parietal cells
(2).
Goblet cells
(3).
Mucous cells
(4).
Chief cells
155.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

(1).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i)
156.
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

(1).
prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
(2).
detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
(3).
activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(4).
binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
157.
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

(1).
Emphysema
(2).
Botulism
(3).
Silicosis
(4).
Anthracis
158.
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?

(1).
UCCAUAGCGUA
(2).
ACCUAUGCGAU
(3).
UGGTUTCGCAT
(4).
AGGUAUCGCAU
159.
Match the items in column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i)
160.
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively ?

(1).
Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(2).
Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(3).
Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(4).
Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
161.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

(1).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)
162.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
163.
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

(1).
hCG, progestogens, estrogens, gluco-corticoids.
(2).
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens.
(3).
hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin.
(4).
hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin.
164.
The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

(1).
is a post-coital contraceptive.
(2).
is an IUD.
(3).
increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(4).
blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
165.
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

(1).
in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation sperma-tozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(2).
in spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(3).
in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
(4).
in spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
166.
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

(1).
ectoderm and endoderm.
(2).
mesoderm and trophoblast.
(3).
endoderm and mesoderm.
(4).
ectoderm and mesoderm.
167.
Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?

(1).
Starfish
(2).
Moth
(3).
Tunicate
(4).
Earthworm
168.
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?

(1).
Psittacula
(2).
Camelus
(3).
Chelone
(4).
Macropus
169.
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

(1).
Presence of anal cerci
(2).
Forewings with darker tegmina
(3).
Presence of caudal styles
(4).
Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
170.
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans ?

(1).
Euglenoids
(2).
Cyanobacteria
(3).
Diatoms
(4).
Dinoflagellates
171.
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

(1).
having two types of nuclei.
(2).
using pseudopodia for capturing prey.
(3).
having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water.
(4).
using flagella for locomotion.
172.
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system

(1).
Osteichthyes.
(2).
Aves.
(3).
Reptilia.
(4).
Amphibia.
173.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
174.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

(1).
(a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
175.
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option

(1).
Eye of octopus , bat and man
(2).
Brain of bat , man and cheetah
(3).
Heart of bat , man and cheetah
(4).
Forelimbs of man , bat and cheetah
176.
Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

(1).
vitamin E
(2).
vitamin B12
(3).
vitamin A
(4).
vitamin D
177.
Which of the following characteristics represent Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
A. Dominance
B. Co - dominance
C. Multiple allele
D. Incomplete dominance
E. Polygenic inheritance

(1).
A , C and E
(2).
B , D and E
(3).
A , B and C
(4).
B , C and E
178.
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

(1).
Vitiligo
(2).
Alzheimer's disease
(3).
Rheumatoid arthritis
(4).
Psoriasis
179.
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

(1).
adaptive radiation.
(2).
convergent evolution.
(3).
analogy.
(4).
homology .
180.
In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels ?

(1).
Amoebiasis
(2).
Ringworm disease
(3).
Ascariasis
(4).
Elephantiasis