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1.
A particle of mass \(' m '\) is projected with a velocity \(v = kV_e\left(k < 1\right)\) from the surface of the earth.(\(V_e\) = escape velocity). The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is

(1).
\(\displaystyle R\left(\frac{k}{1 − k}\right)^2\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle R\left(\frac{k}{1 + k}\right)^2\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R^2k}{1 + k}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{Rk^2}{1 - k^2}\)
2.
If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E/G has the dimensions of

(1).
[M2] [L−1] [T 0]
(2).
[M ] [L−1] [T −1]
(3).
[M ] [L0] [T 0]
(4).
[M2] [L−2] [T −1]
3.
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is

(1).
0.52 cm
(2).
0.026 cm
(3).
0.26 cm
(4).
0.052 cm
4.
From a circular ring of mass ' M ' and radius ' R ' an arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining partof the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ' K ' times ′M R2'. Then the value of ' K ' is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{7}{8}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{8}\)
5.
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle ' θ ' to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ, is then given by:

(1).
\( \theta = {\cos^{-1} \left( \frac{gT^2}{\pi^2 R} \right)}^{1 / 2} \)
(2).
\( \theta = {\cos^{-1} \left( \frac{\pi ^2R}{gT^2} \right)}^{1 / 2} \)
(3).
\( \theta = {\sin^{-1} \left( \frac{\pi ^2R}{gT^2} \right)}^{1 / 2} \)
(4).
\( \theta = {\sin^{-1} \left( \frac{2gT^2}{\pi^2 R} \right)}^{1 / 2} \)
6.
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{Mg}{2}\)
(2).
\(Mg\)
(3).
\( \frac{3}{2}\, Mg\)
(4).
\(2\, Mg\)
7.
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 h. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 h would be

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{3}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{3 \sqrt{2}}\)
8.
Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities.
Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

(1).
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
(2).
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P)
(3).
(A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(4).
(A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
9.
An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ' λ ' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If ' m ' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength \(λ_d\) , then

(1).
\(\displaystyle λ\,=\,\left(\frac{2m}{hc}\right)λ_d^2\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle λ_d\,=\,\left(\frac{2mc}{h}\right)λ^2\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle λ\,=\,\left(\frac{2mc}{h}\right)λ_d^2\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle λ\,=\,\left(\frac{2h}{mc}\right)λ_d^2\)
10.
A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable is represented by

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
11.
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3.

(1).
\(60^\circ\)
(2).
\(30^\circ\)
(3).
\(45^\circ\)
(4).
\(90^\circ\)
12.
The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is \(v\). The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is

(1).
\(v\)
(2).
\(2v\)
(3).
\(3v\)
(4).
\(4v\)
13.
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.

(1).
[F ] [A] [T ]
(2).
[F ] [A] [T 2]
(3).
[F ] [A] [T −1]
(4).
[F ] [A−1] [T ]
14.
A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on A leaves B as a parallel beam, then the distance d (in cm) will be

(1).
25
(2).
15
(3).
50
(4).
30
15.
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of

(1).
20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
(2).
30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
(3).
30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image
(4).
20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image
16.
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope, since

(1).
a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images
(2).
a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power
(3).
a large aperture provides a better resolution
(4).
All of the above
17.
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let \(S_n\) be the distance travelled by the block in the interval \(t\, =\, n − 1\) to \(t\, =\, n\). Then, the ratio \(\displaystyle \frac{S_n}{S_{n+1}}\) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2n − 1}{2n}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2n − 1}{2n + 1}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2n + 1}{2n − 1}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2n}{2n − 1}\)
18.
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1).
\(20\, m/s,\, 5 m/s^2\)
(2).
\(20\, m/s,\, 0\)
(3).
\(20\, \sqrt{2}\, m/s,\, 0\)
(4).
\(20\,\sqrt{2}\, m/s,\, 10\, m/s^2\)
19.
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of \(3.3 × 10^{−3}\) watt will be \((h = 6.6 × 10^{−34}J s)\)

(1).
\(10^{18}\)
(2).
\(10^{17}\)
(3).
\(10^{16}\)
(4).
\(10^{15}\)
20.
Match Column l with Column ll andchoose the correct match fromthegiven choices.

(1).
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(2).
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(3).
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(4).
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
21.
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?

(1).
Towards the left as its potential energy will increase
(2).
Towards the right as its potentialenergy will decrease
(3).
Towards the left as its potentialenergy will decrease
(4).
Towards the right as its potentialenergy will increase
22.
Polar molecules are the molecules

(1).
having zero dipole moment
(2).
acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges.
(3).
acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent
(4).
having a permanent electric dipole moment
23.
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same ashole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field(electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.

(1).
Current in n-type = current in p-type
(2).
Current in p-type > current in n-type
(3).
Current in n-type > current in p-type
(4).
No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type
24.
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.
(A). A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.
(B). The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.

(1).
(A) and (B) both are correct.
(2).
(A) and (B) both are incorrect
(3).
(A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(4).
(A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
25.
For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at theterminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y ?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
26.
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?

(1).
0.2 A
(2).
0.4 A
(3).
2 A
(4).
4 A
27.
Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1 > R2, the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_2}{R_1}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1^2}{R_2}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_2^2}{R_1}\)
28.
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency\(\, 'n'\), the frequency of its potential energy is

(1).
\(n\)
(2).
\(2n\)
(3).
\(3n\)
(4).
\(4n\)
29.
A radioactive nucleus \({}^{A}_{z}X\) undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence
\({}^{A}_{z}X \, \rightarrow \, {}_{z-1}B \, \rightarrow \, {}_{z-3}C \, \rightarrow \, {}_{z-2}D\) where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles in the sequence are

(1).
\(\alpha,\, \beta^-,\, \beta^+\)
(2).
\(\alpha,\, \beta^+,\, \beta^-\)
(3).
\(\beta^+,\, \alpha,\, \beta^-\)
(4).
\(\beta^-,\, \alpha,\, \beta^+\)
30.
The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is

(1).
\(3\,C\)
(2).
\(2\,C\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{C}{2}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3C}{2}\)
31.
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the binding energy in the process is

(1).
0.9 MeV
(2).
9.4 MeV
(3).
804 MeV
(4).
216 MeV
32.
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_2}{R_1}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{R_!}{R_2}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1^2}{R_2^2}\)
33.
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field ' \(\vec{F}\) ' in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ' d ' and the area of each plate is ' A ', the energy stored in the capacitor is ( ε0 = permittivity of free space)

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}ε_0E^2\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle ε_0E Ad\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}ε_0E^2Ad\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{E^2Ad}{ε_0}\)
34.
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.

(1).
660 V
(2).
1320 V
(3).
1520 V
(4).
1980 V
35.
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly

(1).
0 kg m/s
(2).
4.2 kg m/s
(3).
2.1 kg m/s
(4).
1.4 kg m/s
36.
A cup of coffee cools from \(90^\circ C\) to \(80^\circ C\) in t minutes, when the room temperature is \(20^\circ C\). The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from \(80^\circ C\) to \(60^\circ C\) at a room temperature same at \(20^\circ C\) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{13}\, t\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{13}{10}\, t\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{13}{5}\, t\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{10}{13}\, t\)
37.
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 Kg is suspended by it is

(1).
0.628 S
(2).
0.0628 S
(3).
6.28 S
(4).
3.14 S
38.
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω . What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?

(1).
0.25 Ω
(2).
0.5 Ω
(3).
1 Ω
(4).
4 Ω
39.
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?

(1).
60 cm
(2).
21.6 cm
(3).
64 cm
(4).
62 cm
40.
Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shownin the given circuit. The ratio \(\displaystyle \frac{i_3}{i_1}\)of currents in terms of resistances usedin the circuit is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{r_1}{r_2 + r_3}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{r_2}{r_2 + r_3}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{r_1}{r_1 + r_2}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{r_2}{r_1 + r_3}\)
41.
A uniform conducting wire of length \(12\,a\) and resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of,
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.
(ii) a square of side 'a'.
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are

(1).
\(\sqrt{3}\, Ia^2\) and \(3\, I_a^2\)
(2).
\(3\, Ia^2\) and \(Ia^2\)
(3).
\(3\, Ia^2\) and \(4\, Ia^2\)
(4).
\(4\, Ia^2\) and \(3\, Ia^2\)
42.
A capacitor of capacitance ' C ', is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by \( \text{V}\, =\, V_0\, sin\, \omega t\). The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by

(1).
\(I_d\, =\, V_0\, \epsilon \, C \, cos\, \omega t \)
(2).
\(\displaystyle I_d\, =\, \frac{V_0}{\omega C}\, cos\, \omega t\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle I_d \,=\, \frac{V_0}{\omega C} sin\, \omega t\)
(4).
\(I_d \,=\, V_0 \,\epsilon \,C\, sin\, \omega t\)
43.
For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which oneof the following combination gives the correct possible directions forelectric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?

(1).
\(\hat{j}+\hat{k},\, \hat{j}+\hat{k}\)
(2).
\(-\hat{j}+\hat{k}, \, -\hat{j}-\hat{k}\)
(3).
\(\hat{j}+\hat{k}, \, -\hat{j}-\hat{k}\)
(4).
\(-\hat{j}+\hat{k}, \, \hat{j}-\hat{k}\)
44.
An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ' R ' are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference 'V' volts as shown in figure. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40V , 10 V and 40V ,respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through C R series circuit is \(10\, \sqrt{2}\) A. The impedance of the circuit is

(1).
\(4\, \sqrt{2}\, \Omega\)
(2).
\(5\, \sqrt{2}\, \Omega\)
(3).
\(4\, \Omega\)
(4).
\(5\, \Omega\)
45.
A series L-C-R circuit containing \(5.0\, \text{H}\) inductor, \(80\, \mu \text{F}\) capacitor and \(40\, \Omega\) resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency AC source.The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be

(1).
25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
(2).
50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(3).
46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
(4).
42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
46.
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m ∕ s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.

(1).
4 × 10−20 N
(2).
8π × 10−20 N
(3).
4π × 10−20 N
(4).
8 × 10−20 N
47.
In the product \(\vec{F} = q \left(\vec{v} × \vec{B}\right) = q\vec{v} × \left( B\hat{i} + B\hat{j} + B_0\hat{k}\right)\) For q = 1 and \(\vec{v} = 2\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{F} = 4\hat{i} - 20\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}\) What will be the complete expression for \(\vec{B}\)

(1).
\(-8\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}\)
(2).
\(-6\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}\)
(3).
\(8\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}\)
(4).
\(6\hat{i} + 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}\)
48.
A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1).
1 / 2 kg
(2).
1 / 3 kg
(3).
1 / 6 kg
(4).
1 / 12 kg
49.
A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at thatinstant are respectively

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{S}{4}\), \(\displaystyle \frac{3gS}{2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{S}{4}\),\(\displaystyle\frac{\sqrt{3gs}}{2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{S}{2}\),\(\displaystyle \frac{\sqrt{3gs}}{2}\)
(4).
\( \displaystyle \frac{S}{4}\),\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{3gs}{2}}\)
50.
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate aturbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy.How much power is generated by the turbine?(g = 10 m/s2 )

(1).
10.2 kW
(2).
8.1 kW
(3).
12.3 kW
(4).
7.0 kW
51.
The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is:

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
52.
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.

(1).
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
(2).
Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
(3).
Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
(4).
Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.
53.
What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction ?

(1).
2-methyl propan-2-ol
(2).
pentan-2-ol
(3).
pentan-3-ol
(4).
2-methyl butan-2-ol
54.
Match List -I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2).
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3).
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4).
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(i)
55.
Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures:

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
56.
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as
HF << HCI << HBr << HI.
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose thecorrect answer from the options given below.

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement Il isfalse.
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II istrue.
57.
Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali:

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
58.
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1).
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2).
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3).
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4).
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
59.
The product formed from the following chemical reaction is

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
60.
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?

(1).
POCl3
(2).
CH2O
(3).
SbCl5
(4).
NO2
61.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.
Statement II : Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesine In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
62.
BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are:

(1).
sp3 and 4
(2).
sp3 and 6
(3).
sp2 and 6
(4).
sp2 and 8
63.
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCI and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Choose the right option for your answer.

(1).
201.28 S cm2 mol-1
(2).
390.71 S cm2 mol-1
(3).
698.28 S cm2 mol-1
(4).
540.48 S cm2 mol-1
64.
The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is exhibited by", is:

(1).
NaCl solution
(2).
Glucose solution
(3).
Starch solution
(4).
Urea solution
65.
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:

(1).
Vitamin B12
(2).
Vitamin B6
(3).
Vitamin B1
(4).
Vitamin B2
66.
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is:

(1).
120°
(2).
180°
(3).
60°
(4).
0°
67.
The incorrect statement among the following is :

(1).
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
(2).
Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.
(3).
Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
(4).
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
68.
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?

(1).
Saytzeff's Rule
(2).
Hund's Rule
(3).
Hoffmann Rule
(4).
Huckel's Rule
69.
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas ?

(1).
CP + CV= R
(2).
CP-CV=R
(3).
CP= RCV
(4).
CV = RCP
70.
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?

(1).
Teflon
(2).
Nylon-66
(3).
Novolac
(4).
Dacron
71.
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?

(1).
Electrolysis
(2).
Chromatography
(3).
Distillation
(4).
Zone refining
72.
The major product of the following chemical reaction is:

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
73.
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emitswhich of the following particles ?

(1).
Beta \( \beta^-\)
(2).
Alpha \(\alpha\)
(3).
Gamma \(\gamma)
(4).
Neutron \(\text{n}\)
74.
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is

(1).
CH3-F< CH3-Cl< CH3-Br < CH3-I
(2).
CH3-F> CH3-Cl> CH3-Br> CH3-I
(3).
CH3-F< CH3-Cl> CH3-Br > CH3-I
(4).
CH3-CI> CH3-F>CH3-Br > CH3-I
75.
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are:

(1).
8, 4
(2).
6, 12
(3).
2, 1
(4).
12, 6
76.
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
77.
The pKb of dimethylamine and pka of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is:

(1).
8.50
(2).
5.50
(3).
7.75
(4).
6.25
78.
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is:

(1).
Calcium chloride
(2).
Strontium chloride
(3).
Magnesium chloride
(4).
Beryllium chloride
79.
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is:

(1).
upto 1200 K
(2).
upto 2200 K
(3).
upto 1900 K
(4).
upto 5000 K
80.
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :

(1).
Hexadentate ligand with four 'O and two N donor atoms
(2).
Unidentate ligand
(3).
Bidentate ligand with two N donor atoms
(4).
Tridentate ligand with three N donor atoms
81.
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 gof urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :

(1).
P2 > P1 > P3
(2).
P1 > P2 > P3
(3).
P2 > P3 > P1
(4).
P3 > P1 > P2
82.
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are:

(1).
Chain and dimer, respectively
(2).
Linear in both
(3).
Dimer and Linear, respectively
(4).
Chain in both
83.
For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is -4.2 kJ mol-1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol-1. The correct potential energy profle for the reaction is shown in option.

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
84.
Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :

(1).
belonging to same group
(2).
diagonal relationship
(3).
lanthanoid contraction
(4).
having similar chemical properties
85.
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light c=3.0 × 108 ms-1]

(1).
219.3 m
(2).
219.2 m
(3).
2192 m
(4).
21.92 cm
86.
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]

(1).
CH
(2).
CH2
(3).
CH3
(4).
CH4
87.
The compound which shows metamerism is :

(1).
C5H12
(2).
C3H8O
(3).
C3H6O
(4).
C4H10O
88.
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is:

(1).
7
(2).
5
(3).
2
(4).
3
89.
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is:
[Given R=0.082 L atm mol-1K-1, T= 273K]

(1).
2.518
(2).
2.602
(3).
25.18
(4).
26.02
90.

Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.

(1).
B2H6
(2).
Red Phosphorus
(3).
CaO
(4).
DIBAL-H
91.
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
92.
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it ?

(1).
HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
(2).
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values
(3).
NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic character
(4).
CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbP2 : Increasing oxidizing power
93.
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol-1, What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option.

(1).
1.75 x 10-4 mol L-1
(2).
2.50 x 10-4 mol L-1
(3).
1.75 x 10-5 mol L-1
(4).
2.50 x 10-5 mol L-1
94.
The slope of Arrhenius Plot \(\left(\,ln\,k\,v/s\,\frac{1}{T}\right)\) of first order reaction is -5 x 103 K. The value of Ea of the reaction is. Choose the correct option.
[Given R=8.314 JK-1mol-1]

(1).
41.5 kJ mol-1
(2).
83.0 kJ mol-1
(3).
166 kJ mol-1
(4).
-83 kJ mol-1
95.
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2).
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3).
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4).
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
96.
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?

(1).
O2-,F-
(2).
Na+,Mg2+
(3).
Mn2+,Fe3+
(4).
Fe2+,Mn2+
97.
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3: 2 is :
[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg, Assume Ideal gas]

(1).
160 mm of Hg
(2).
168 mm of Hg
(3).
336 mm of Hg
(4).
350 mm of Hg
98.
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2).
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3).
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4).
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
99.
The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical reaction is

(1).
H2O
(2).
CH3CH2OH
(3).
HI
(4).
CuCN/KCN
100.
The intermediate compound "X" in the following chemical reaction is :

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
101.
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?

(1).
Graafian follicle
(2).
Corpus luteum
(3).
Foetus
(4).
Uterus
102.
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.

(1).
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(2).
(a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
(3).
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d).Protein
(4).
(a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
103.
Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
104.
Match List -I with List - II.


(1).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) -(iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
105.
Match List -I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
106.
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

(1).
8-nucleate and 7-celled
(2).
7-nucleate and 8-celled
(3).
7-nucleate and 7-celled
(4).
8-nucleate and 8-celled
107.
Which of the following statements is correct?

(1).
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
(2).
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
(3).
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
(4).
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
108.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1).
During aerobic respiration, the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
(2).
In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), onevmolecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH, gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
(3).
ATP is synthesized through complex V.
(4).
Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradients in respiration.
109.
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for B-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E. coli strain

(1).
It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
(2).
The transformed cells will haye the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β- galactoside
(3).
It will lead to lysis of host cell
(4).
It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability.
110.
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are:

(1).
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(2).
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(3).
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(4).
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
111.
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?

(1).
Improve protein content
(2).
Improve resistance to diseases
(3).
Improve vitamin content
(4).
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
112.
Read the following statements.
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
(2).
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3).
(a), (d) and (e) are correct
(4).
(b), (c) and (e) are correct
113.
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?

(1).
T: 20; G: 30; C: 20
(2).
T: 20; G: 20: C: 30
(3).
T:30; G: 20; C: 20
(4).
T: 20: G: 25; C: 25
114.
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroaches?

(1).
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hindgut.
(2).
Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
(3).
In females, 7th - 9th sterna together form a genital pouch.
(4).
10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
115.
The partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:

(1).
pO2 =104 and pCO2 = 40
(2).
pO2= 40 and pCO2=45
(3).
pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
(4).
pO2 = 159 and pCO2= 0.3
116.
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

(1).
Cow is administered hormone having LH Iike activity for superovulation
(2).
Cow yields about 6 - 8 eggs at a time
(3).
Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
(4).
Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8–32 cell stage
117.
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?
(a) H zone disappears
(b) 'A' band widens
(c) T band reduces in width
(d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
(2).
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
(3).
(b), (c), (d), (e) only
(4).
(b), (d), (e), (a) only
118.
Following are the statements with reference to "lipids'.
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) and (b) only
(2).
(c) and (d) only
(3).
(b) and (c) only
(4).
(b) and (e) only
119.
Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?

(1).
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
(2).
The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
(3).
Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
(4).
Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
120.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c)-(iv), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
121.
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitate communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

(1).
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.
(2).
Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
(3).
Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.
(4).
Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
122.
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.
(a) It serves as a covering for the mouth.
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
(d) It is the first body segment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2).
(a), (b) and (d) are correct
(3).
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(4).
(b) and (c) are correct
123.
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into:

(1).
Dysfunction of Immune system
(2).
Parkinson's disease
(3).
Digestive disorder
(4).
Addison's disease
124.
Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
125.
Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient Oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3).
(A) is true but (R) is false
(4).
(A) is false but (R) is true
126.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
127.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (iii), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) -(i), (d) - (iv)
128.
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

(1).
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(2).
Synthesis of prostaglandins
(3).
Release of Oxytocin
(4).
Release of Prolactin
129.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) -(ii),  (d) - (i)
130.
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:

(1).
Kinetin
(2).
Infrared rays
(3).
Gamma rays
(4).
Zeatin
131.
Match List -I with List -II

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d)- (iv)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) -(iv), (d) - (i)
132.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

(1).
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(2).
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(3).
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4).
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
133.
Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
134.
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:

(1).
Xenogamy
(2).
Geitonogamy
(3).
Chasmogamy
(4).
Cleistogamy
135.
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:

(1).
Yellow bands
(2).
Bright orange bands
(3).
Dark red bands
(4).
Bright blue bands
136.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1).
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
(2).
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
(3).
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
(4).
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
137.
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?

(1).
Resource partitioning
(2).
Competitive release
(3).
Mutualism
(4).
Predation
138.
Gemmae are present in:

(1).
Mosses
(2).
Pteridophytes
(3).
Some Gymnosperms
(4).
Some Liverworts
139.
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called:

(1).
Bullet square
(2).
Punch square
(3).
Punnett square
(4).
Net square
140.
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:

(1).
Homosorus
(2).
Heterosorus
(3).
Homosporous
(4).
Heterosporous
141.
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as:

(1).
Climax
(2).
Climax community
(3).
Standing state
(4).
Standing crop
142.
Amensalism can be represented as :

(1).
Species A (-); Species B (0)
(2).
Species A (+); Species B (+)
(3).
Species A (-); Species B (-)
(4).
Species A (+); Species B (0)
143.
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

(1).
Molecular diagnosis
(2).
Gene amplification
(3).
Purification of isolated protein
(4).
Detection of gene mutation
144.
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :

(1).
RNA
(2).
DNA
(3).
Histones
(4).
Polysaccharides
145.
In the equation GPP-R= NPP R represents:

(1).
Radiant energy
(2).
Retardation factor
(3).
Environment factor
(4).
Respiration losses
146.
The first stable product of C02 fixation in sorghum is:

(1).
Pyruvic acid
(2).
Oxaloacetic acid
(3).
Succinic acid
(4).
Phosphoglyceric acid
147.
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?

(1).
Green algae
(2).
Brown algae
(3).
Red algae
(4).
Blue-green algae
148.
Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1).
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(2).
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(3).
Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(4).
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
149.
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?

(1).
Morphine, codeine
(2).
Amino acids, glucose
(3).
Vinblastin, curcumin
(4).
Rubber, gums
150.
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?

(1).
Ectocarpus
(2).
Gracilaria
(3).
Volvox
(4).
Ulothrix
151.
Diadelphous stamens are found in:

(1).
China rose
(2).
Citrus
(3).
Pea
(4).
China rose and citrus
152.
When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as:

(1).
Biopiracy
(2).
Gene therapy
(3).
Molecular diagnosis
(4).
Safety testing
153.
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

(1).
Metaphase I
(2).
Metaphase II
(3).
Anaphase II
(4).
Telophase II
154.
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:

(1).
Elasticity
(2).
Flexibility
(3).
Plasticity.
(4).
Maturity
155.
Which of the following plants is monoecious?

(1).
Carica papaya
(2).
Chara
(3).
Marchantia polymorpha
(4).
Cycas circinalis
156.
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as:

(1).
Metacentric
(2).
Telocentric
(3).
Sub-metacentric
(4).
Acrocentric
157.
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is:

(1).
Shoot apex
(2).
Stem
(3).
Axillary bud
(4).
Leaf
158.
The factor that leads to Founder effect in population is:

(1).
Natural selection
(2).
Genetic recombination
(3).
Mutation
(4).
Genetic drift
159.
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:

(1).
IAA
(2).
NAA
(3).
2, 4 -D
(4).
IBA
160.
Match Column -I with Column - II

Choose the correct answer from options given below:

(1).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
161.
Select the correct pair.

(1).
Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary Cells
(2).
In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells - Conjunctive Tissue
(3).
Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring - Interfascicular cambium
(4).
Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens shaped opening in the bark - Spongy Parenchyma
162.
Identify the correct statement.

(1).
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3` end of hnRNA.
(2).
RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
(3).
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.
(4).
Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
163.
In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0erte represents:

(1).
The base of number logarithms
(2).
The base of exponential logarithms
(3).
The base of natural logarithms
(4).
The base of geometric logarithms
164.
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?

(1).
Transcribes rRNAs (28 S,18 S and 5.8 S)
(2).
Transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA
(3).
Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(4).
Transcribes only snRNAs
165.
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?

(1).
Poaceae; Rosaceae
(2).
Poaceae; Leguminosae
(3).
Poaceae; Solanaceae
(4).
Rosaceae; Leguminosae
166.
Match List -I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
167.
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA ina clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:

(1).
Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
(2).
Mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.
(3).
Mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it.
(4).
Mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it.
168.
Match Column -I with Column-II.

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) -(iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c)- (i), (d) - (iii)
169.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1).
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
(2).
Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
(3).
Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
(4).
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
170.
Match List -I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) -(iv), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) -(i), (d) - (ii)
171.
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as:

(1).
Satellite DNA
(2).
Repetitive DNA
(3).
Single nucleotides
(4).
Polymorphic DNA
172.
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?

(1).
These muscle have no striations
(2).
They are involuntary muscles
(3).
Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
(4).
These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
173.
With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(b) and (d) only
(2).
(b) and (c) only
(3).
(a), (c) and (d) only
(4).
(a) and (d) only
174.
Veneral diseases can spread through:
(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a), (b) and (c) only
(2).
(b), (c) and (d) only
(3).
(b) and (c) only
(4).
(a) and (c) only
175.
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.

(1).
High pO2 , low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
(2).
Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
(3).
High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
(4).
Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
176.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
177.
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?

(1).
50%
(2).
75%
(3).
25%
(4).
100%
178.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) -(iv), (b) - (ii), (c) -(i), (d) - (iii)
179.
Sphincter of oddi is present at:

(1).
Ileo-caecal junction
(2).
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
(3).
Gastro-oesophageal junction
(4).
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
180.
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:

(1).
Alpha cells of pancreas
(2).
The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(3).
The cells of bone marrow
(4).
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
181.
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?

(1).
Neophron
(2).
Hemidactylus
(3).
Macropus
(4).
Ornithorhynchus
182.
The centriole undergoes duplication during:

(1).
S-phase
(2).
Prophase
(3).
Metaphase
(4).
G2 phase
183.
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:

(1).
CFCs
(2).
Stratosphere
(3).
Ozone
(4).
Troposphere
184.
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

(1).
Fire fly
(2).
Grasshopper
(3).
Cockroach
(4).
House fly
185.
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?

(1).
Western Blotting Technique
(2).
Southern Blotting Technique
(3).
ELISA Technique
(4).
Hybridization Technique
186.
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on:

(1).
Corona radiata
(2).
Vitelline membrane
(3).
Perivitelline space
(4).
Zona pellucida
187.
Chronic autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:

(1).
Arthritis
(2).
Muscular dystrophy
(3).
Myasthenia gravis
(4).
Gout
188.
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?

(1).
CuT
(2).
LNG 20
(3).
Cu7
(4).
Multiload 375
189.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iv); (b) -(ii); (c)-(i); (d) – (iii)
(2).
(a)- (i); (b) – (iii); (c)– (ii); (d) – (iv)
(3).
(a)-(ii); (b)– (iv); (c)– (iii); (d) – (i)
(4).
(a)- (iii); (b) –(i); (c)-(iv); (d) -(ii)
190.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) -(i), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) -(ii), (d) - (iii)
191.
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8. What would be the number of chromosomes after the S phase?

(1).
8
(2).
16
(3).
4
(4).
32
192.
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if a very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?

(1).
Annealing
(2).
Extension
(3).
Denaturation
(4).
Ligation
193.
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

(1).
Thrombin
(2).
Renin
(3).
Epinephrine
(4).
Thrombokinase
194.
Succus entericus is referred to as:

(1).
Pancreatic juice
(2).
Intestinal juice
(3).
Gastric juice
(4).
Chyme
195.
Identify the incorrect pair.

(1).
Alkaloids - Codeine
(2).
Toxin - Abrin
(3).
Lectins - Concanavalin A
(4).
Drugs - Ricin
196.
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

(1).
Leptotene
(2).
Zygotene
(3).
Diakinesis
(4).
Pachytene
197.
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients", This is due to:

(1).
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
(2).
Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(3).
Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(4).
Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
198.
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:

(1).
Degenerate primer sequence
(2).
Okazaki sequences
(3).
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(4).
Poly (A) tail sequences
199.
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?

(1).
mRNA
(2).
tRNA
(3).
rRNA
(4).
siRNA
200.
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?

(1).
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2).
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3).
DNA Ligase
(4).
DNAse