Home >> NEET - 2020
Welcome Dear Student and Shine in NEET with Shine NEET SmartPrep!.
All NEET - 2020 questions are displayed here. But you would be able to try only a sub set of these questions in your free trial.
We recommend you explore the full system and go for a one time subscription if you are satisfied.
Try it out and feel the difference!!

Subscribe to full version of smart test prep solution for the same cost of a static and boring printed question bank!

Limited-Time Offer: Get all this for just ₹1199

Why settle for outdated methods when you can prepare smarter, track better, and score higher?
Subscribe Now & Take Control of Your NEET Prep !

Subscribe
Your Full Test Performance Summary
You are yet to try out this test. Performance Summary not avialable !
Questions Available: 180
Questions Attempted: 0
Number of Attempts: 0
Correct Attempts: 0
Total Time Spent: 00:00
Avg Time Per Question: 00:00
Start Test
1.
The average thermal energy for a monoatomic gas is (where,\(k_ B\) is Boltzmann constant and T is absolute temperature.)

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}k_B\,T\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{2}k_B\,T\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{7}{2}k_B\,T\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}k_B\,T\)
2.
A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is: (\(\mu_0\, =\, 4\, \pi \times 10^{−7}\,T\, m\,A^{−1}\))

(1).
\(3.14 \times 10^{−4}\,T\)
(2).
\(6.28 \times 10^{−5}\,T\)
(3).
\(3.14 \times 10^{−5}\,T\)
(4).
\(6.28 \times 10^{−4}\,T\)
3.
A body weighs \(72\,N\) on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

(1).
\(32\,N\)
(2).
\(30\,N\)
(3).
\(24\,N\)
(4).
\(48\,N\)
4.
Dimensions of stress are :

(1).
\([M\, L^2\, T^{ −2}]\)
(2).
\([M\, L^0\, T^{ −2}]\)
(3).
\([M\, L^{−1}\, T^{ −2}]\)
(4).
\([M\, L\, T^{ −2}]\)
5.
Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m − 0.0099 ?

(1).
9.98 m
(2).
9.980 m
(3).
9.9 m
(4).
9.9801 m
6.
A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is :

(1).
0.25 mm
(2).
0.5 mm
(3).
1.0 mm
(4).
0.01 mm
7.
Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is

(1).
adiabatic
(2).
isochoric
(3).
isobaric
(4).
isothermal
8.
A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20m ∕ s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of80m ∕ sThe height of the tower is : (g = 10m ∕ s2)

(1).
340m
(2).
320m
(3).
300m
(4).
360m
9.
The mean free path l for a gas,with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed as

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}n\pi d^2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}n^2\pi d^2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}n^2\pi^2 d^2}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}n\pi d}\)
10.
A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. Its density is (\(R = 8.3\, J mol^{ −1} K^{−1}\) )

(1).
\(0.2\, kg/m^3\)
(2).
\( 0.1\, kg/m^3\)
(3).
\( 0.02 \, kg/m^3\)
(4).
\(0.5 \, kg/m^3\)
11.
An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is \(1.227 × 10^2nm\) the potential difference is:

(1).
\(10^2V\)
(2).
\(10^3V\)
(3).
\(10^4V\)
(4).
\(10V\)
12.
Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?

(1).
four times
(2).
one-fourth
(3).
zero
(4).
doubled
13.
A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :

(1).
5.0 g
(2).
10.0 g
(3).
20.0 g
(4).
2.5 g
14.
The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diodeis due to:

(1).
reverse bias only
(2).
both forward bias and reverse bias
(3).
increase in forward current
(4).
forward bias only
15.
For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?

(1).
Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.
(2).
Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased
(3).
The base region must be very thin and lightly doped
(4).
Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.
16.
For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
17.
A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is \(\pi /3\). If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again \(\pi /3\) between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is:

(1).
0.5
(2).
1.0
(3).
-1.0
(4).
zero
18.
A wire of length L, area of cross-section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{Mg\left(L_1 - L\right)}{AL}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{MgL}{AL_1}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{MgL}{A\left(L_1-L\right)}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{MgL_1}{AL}\)
19.
The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is:

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3\,\pi}{2}\) rad
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2}\) rad
(3).
\(zero\)
(4).
\(\pi \) rad
20.
For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?

(1).
Singly ionised helium atom (\(He^+\) )
(2).
Deuteron atom
(3).
Singly ionised neon atom (\(Ne^+\) )
(4).
Hydrogen atom
21.
In a guitar, two strings \(A\) and \(B\) made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency \(6\,Hz\). When tension in \(B\) is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to \(7\,Hz\). If the frequency of \(A\) is \(530\,Hz\), the original frequency of \(B\) will be

(1).
\(524\,Hz\)
(2).
\(536\,Hz\)
(3).
\(537\,Hz\)
(4).
\(523\,Hz\)
22.
The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is

(1).
4.5 × 1013 J
(2).
1.5 × 1013 J
(3).
0.5 × 1013 J
(4).
4.5 × 1016 J
23.
When a uraniumisotope \(\displaystyle {}^{235}_92U\) is bombarded with a neutron, itgenerates \(\displaystyle {}^{89}_{36}Kr\), three neutrons and

(1).
\(\displaystyle {}^{91}_{40}Zr\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle {}^{101}_{36}Kr\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle {}^{103}_{36}Kr\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle {}^{144}_{56}Ba\)
24.
A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of \(3.2 × 10^{−7} C\) distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15cm from the centre of the sphere? \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{ 4\, \pi\, \epsilon_0} = 9 × 10^9 N m^2/C^2\))

(1).
\(1.28 \times 10^5\, N ∕ C \)
(2).
\(1.28 \times 10^6\, N ∕ C \)
(3).
\(1.28 \times 10^7\, N ∕ C \)
(4).
\(1.28 \times 10^4\, N ∕ C \)
25.
In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V through out. The magnitude of electric field in this region is:

(1).
0.5 N ∕ C
(2).
1 N ∕ C
(3).
5 N ∕ C
(4).
zero
26.
A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of \(16 \times 10^{−9}\) Cm. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of \(60^\circ\) with the dipole axis is : \(\displaystyle \left(\frac{1}{4πϵ_0} = 9 × 10^9 Nm^2/C^2\right)\)

(1).
200 V
(2).
400 V
(3).
zero
(4).
50 V
27.
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6µF . With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30µF. The permittivity of the medium is:
(\(E_0 = 8.85 × 10^{−12}\,C^2N^{−1}m^{−2}\))

(1).
\( 1.77×10^{−12}\, C^2N^{−1}m^{−2}\)
(2).
\(0.44×10^{−10}\, C^2N^{−1}m^{−2}\)
(3).
\(5.00\, C^2 N^{−1}m^{−2}\)
(4).
\(0.44×10^{−13}\, C^2N^{−1}m^{−2}\)
28.
Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is

(1).
\(1.83 \times 10^{-7}\) rad
(2).
\(7.32 \times 10^{-7}\) rad
(3).
\(6.00 \times 10^{-7}\) rad
(4).
\(3.66 \times 10^{-7}\) rad
29.
A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is \(\mu\), then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2\, \text{A}}{\mu}\)
(2).
\(\mu \text{A}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\mu \, \text{A}}{2}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{A}}{2\,\mu}\)
30.
Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of

(1).
50 cm
(2).
67 cm
(3).
80 cm
(4).
33 cm
31.
Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{g}{2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{g}{5}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{g}{10}\)
(4).
\(g\)
32.
In Young's double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes

(1).
half
(2).
four times
(3).
one-fourth
(4).
double
33.
Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (\(\rho\)) with temperature (T) for copper?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
34.
Light with an average flux of \(20\, \text{W}/cm^2\) falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area \(20\,cm^2\). The energy recieved by the surface during time span of 1 minute is

(1).
\(12 \times\ 10^3\) J
(2).
\(24 \times\ 10^3\) J
(3).
\(48 \times\ 10^3\) J
(4).
\(10 \times\ 10^3\) J
35.
The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistanceare:

(1).
insulators only
(2).
semiconductors only
(3).
insulators and semiconductors
(4).
metals
36.
An iron rod of susceptibility \(599\) is subjected to a magnetising field of \(1200\,A\,m^{−1}\). The permeability of the material of the rod is :\(\mu_0\, =\, 4\, \pi \times 10^{−7}\,T\, m\,A^{−1}\)

(1).
\(8.0 \times 10^{−5}\,T\, m\,A^{−1}\)
(2).
\(2.4\pi \times 10^{−5}\,T\, m\,A^{−1}\)
(3).
\(2.4\pi \times 10^{−7}\,T\, m\,A^{−1}\)
(4).
\(2.4\pi \times 10^{−4}\,T\, m\,A^{−1}\)
37.
The quantities of heat required to raise the temperarture of two solid copper spheres of radii \(r_1\) and \(r_2\) (\(r_1\,=\,1.5\,r_2\)) through 1 K are in the ratio

(1).
9/5
(2).
3/2
(3).
5/3
(4).
27/8
38.
The color code of a resistance is given below Yellow Violet Brown GoldThe values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are

(1).
47 kΩ, 10%
(2).
4.7 kΩ, 5%
(3).
470 Ω, 5%
(4).
470 kΩ, 5%
39.
Find the torque about the origin when a force of \(3\, \hat{j}\, \text{N}\) acts on a particle whose position vector is \(2\, \hat{k}\, m\).

(1).
\(6\, \hat{j}\, \text{Nm}\)
(2).
\(-6\, \hat{i}\, \text{Nm}\)
(3).
\(6\, \hat{k}\, \text{Nm}\)
(4).
\(6\, \hat{i}\, \text{Nm}\)
40.
A charged particle having drift velocity of \(7.5 \times 10^{−4}\,ms^{−1}\) in an electric field of \(3 \times 10^{−10}\, V\, m^{−1}\), has a mobility in \(m^2\,V^{−1}\,s^{−1}\) of

(1).
\(2.5 \times 10^6\)
(2).
\(2.5 \times 10^{−6}\)
(3).
\(2.25 \times 10^{−15}\)
(4).
\(2.25 \times 10^{15}\)
41.
The Brewsters angle \(i_b\) for an interface should be

(1).
\(30^\circ\, <\, i_b\, <\, 45^\circ\)
(2).
\(45^\circ\, <\, i_b\, <\, 90^\circ\)
(3).
\( i_b\, =\, 90^\circ\)
(4).
\(0^\circ\, <\, i_b\, <\, 30^\circ\)
42.
A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a \(10\, \Omega\) resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio \(3 : 2\). If the length of the resistance wire is \(1.5\, m\), then the length of \(1\, \Omega\) of the resistance wire is:

(1).
\(1.0 \times 10^{−1}\,m\)
(2).
\(1.5 \times 10{^−1}\,m\)
(3).
\(1.5 \times 10^{−2}\,m\)
(4).
\(1.0 \times 10^{−2}\,m\)
43.
The energy required to break one bond in DNA is \(10^{-20}\, \text{J}\). This value in eV is nearly

(1).
0.6
(2).
0.06
(3).
0.006
(4).
6
44.
The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : ( c = speed of electromagnetic waves)

(1).
\(1 : 1\)
(2).
\(1 : c\)
(3).
\(1 : c^2\)
(4).
\(c : 1\)
45.
A 40μF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz AC supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly

(1).
2.05 A
(2).
2.5 A
(3).
25.1 A
(4).
1.7 A
46.
What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction ?
\(\text{CH}_4\text{(g)} \,+\, \text{4Cl}_2\text{(g)} \, \rightarrow \, \text{CCl}_4\text{(i)}\, +\, \text{4HCl(g)}\)

(1).
0 to +4
(2).
-4 to +4
(3).
0 to -4
(4).
+4 to +4
47.
Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

(1).
2,3-Dimethylbutane
(2).
n-Heptane
(3).
n-Butane
(4).
n-Hexane
48.
An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is:

(1).
\(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4} \times 288\) pm
(2).
\(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}} \times 288\) pm
(3).
\(\frac{4}{\sqrt{2}} \times 288\) pm
(4).
\(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \times 288\) pm
49.
The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in \(^{175} _{71}Lu\), respectively are:

(1).
104, 71 and 71
(2).
71,71 and 104
(3).
175, 104 and 71
(4).
71, 104 and 71
50.
An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is :

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
51.
On electrolysis of dilute suiphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be:

(1).
Oxygen gas
(2).
H2S gas
(3).
SO2 gas
(4).
Hydrogen gas
52.
An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in:

(1).
heat of reaction
(2).
threshold energy
(3).
collision frequency
(4).
activation energy
53.
Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as:

(1).
Cannizzaro's reaction
(2).
Cross Cannizzaro's reaction
(3).
Cross Aldol condensation
(4).
Aldol condensation
54.
Which of the following is a natural polymer?

(1).
poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(2).
polybutadiene
(3).
poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
(4).
cis- 1, 4-polyisoprene
55.
A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7g of N2 and 8g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is:
[Use atomic masses (in gmol-1): N = 14, Ar = 40]

(1).
12 bar
(2).
15 bar
(3).
18 bar
(4).
9 bar
56.
Match the following and identify the correct option.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
57.
For the reaction, 2Cl(g)→ C2(g), the correct option is:

(1).
\(\Delta_r\, H \,>\, 0 \text{ and } \Delta_r \,S\, <\, 0\)
(2).
\(\Delta_r\, H\, <\, 0 \text{ and } \Delta_r\, S \,>\, 0\)
(3).
\(\Delta_r\, H\, <\, 0 \text{ and } \Delta_r\, S\, <\, 0\)
(4).
\(\Delta_r\, H\, >\, 0 \text{ and } \Delta_r\, S\, >\, 0\)
58.
Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following ?

(1).
[Cu(NH3)4]2+
(2).
Cu(OH)2
(3).
CuCO3Cu(OH)2
(4).
Cuso4
59.
Reaction between acetone and methyl magnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:

(1).
Sec. butyl alcohol
(2).
Tert. butyl alcohol
(3).
Isobutyl alcohol
(4).
Isopropyl alcohol
60.
The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

(1).
Copper
(2).
Calcium
(3).
Potassium
(4).
Iron
61.
Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?

(1).
Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(2).
Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(3).
Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene bn
(4).
Ammonia, berylium difluoride, water, 1,4- dichlorobenzene
62.
Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1).
Li2
(2).
C2
(3).
O2
(4).
He2
63.
ldentify the incorrect match.

(1).
(b), (ii)
(2).
(c), (iii)
(3).
(d), (iv)
(4).
(a), (i)
64.
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 x 10-3s-1, The time required to reduce 2.0g of the reactant to 0.2 g is:

(1).
200 s
(2).
500 s
(3).
1000 s
(4).
100 s
65.
ldentify the correct statements from the folowing:

(1).
Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2
(2).
Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(3).
Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
(4).
Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
66.
Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution ?

(1).
Solubility
(2).
Stability of the colloidal particles
(3).
Size of the colloidal particles
(4).
Viscosity
67.
Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has -O-O-linkage?

(1).
H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(2).
H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(3).
H2s2O7. pyrosulphuric acid
(4).
H2SO3, sulphurous acid
68.
Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is:
(a) \(\beta\) - Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction
Choose the correct option from the following:

(1).
(a), (c), (d)
(2).
(b), (c), (d)
(3).
(a), (b), (d)
(4).
(a), (b), (c)
69.
ldentify the correct statements from the following:
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.

(1).
(a) and (c) only
(2).
(b) and (c) only
(3).
(c) and (d) only
(4).
(a), (b) and (c) only
70.
Paper chromatography is an example of:

(1).
Partition chromatography
(2).
Thin layer chromatography
(3).
Column chromatography
(4).
Adsorption chromatography
71.
Match the following :

(1).
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2).
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3).
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4).
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
72.
Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms ?

(1).
1g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(2).
1g of O2 (g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
(3).
1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(4).
1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
73.
Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?

(1).
Alanine
(2).
Tyrosine
(3).
Lysine
(4).
Serine
74.
The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is:

(1).
4.90 BM
(2).
5.92 BM
(3).
2.84 BM
(4).
3.87 BM
75.
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:

(1).
\(\alpha \text{- D-Glucose + } \beta \text{-D-Glucose}\)
(2).
\(\alpha \text{- D-Glucose + } \beta \text{-D-Fructose}\)
(3).
\(\alpha \text{- D-Fructose + } \beta \text{-D-Fructose}\)
(4).
\(\beta \text{- D-Glucose + } \alpha \text{-D-Fructose}\)
76.
The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is:

(1).
Benzene + Toluene
(2).
Acetone + Chloroform
(3).
Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(4).
Ethanol+Acetone
77.
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following ?

(1).
+R effect of -CH groups
(2).
-R effect of -CH groups
(3).
Hyperconjugation
(4).
-I effect of -CH3 groups
78.
Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 x 10-15

(1).
2 x 10-8 M
(2).
1 x 10-13 M
(3).
1 x 108 M
(4).
2 x 10-13 M
79.
Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?

(1).
Sodium stearate
(2).
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(3).
Sodium dodecyltbenzene sulphonate
(4).
Sodium lauryl sulphate
80.
The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol-1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off up to two decimal places):

(1).
0.80 K
(2).
0.40 K
(3).
0.60 K
(4).
0.20 K
81.
ldentify the incorrect statement.

(1).
The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
(2).
Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
(3).
The oxidation states of chromium in CrO42- and Cr2O72- are not the same.
(4).
Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+(d6) in water.
82.
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide ?

(1).
It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(2).
The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
(3).
It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
(4).
It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
83.
Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction.
Sucrose + H2O \(\rightleftharpoons \) Glucose + Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2 x 1013 at 800 K, the value of \(\Delta \text{rG}^ \ominus \) at the same temperature will be

(1).
8.314 J mol-1K-1 x 300 K x In(2 x 1013)
(2).
8.314 J mol-1K-1 x 300 K x In(3 x 1013)
(3).
-8.314 J mol-1K-1 x 300 K x In(4 x 1013)
(4).
-8.314 J mol-1K-1 x 300 K x In(2 x 1013)
84.
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds ?

(1).
SCN- < F- < CN- < C2O42-
(2).
F- < SCN- < C2O42- < CN-
(3).
CN- < C2O42- < SCN- < F-
(4).
SCN- < F- < C2O42- < CN-
85.
ldentify compound X in the following sequence of reacions:

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
86.
The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:

(1).
\(q\, =\, 0,\, \Delta T\, <\,0\, \text{ and}\, w\,>\, 0\)
(2).
\(q\, <\, 0,\, \Delta T\, =\,0\, \text{ and}\, w\,=\, 0\)
(3).
\(q\, >\, 0,\, \Delta T\, >\,0\, \text{ and}\, w\,>\, 0\)
(4).
\(q\, =\, 0,\, \Delta T\, =\,0\, \text{ and}\, w\,=\, 0\)
87.
The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol-1) is:

(1).
2
(2).
3
(3).
4
(4).
1
88.
HCl was passed through a solution of CaCI2, MgCi2 and NaCI. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?

(1).
Only NaCI
(2).
Only MgCl2
(3).
NaCI, MgCl2 and CaCl2
(4).
Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
89.
Anisole on cleavage with Hl gives:

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
90.
Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test ?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
91.
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action
(a) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.

(1).
(a) and (c)
(2).
(b), (c) and (d)
(3).
only (d)
(4).
only (a)
92.
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla - Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

(1).
(c) and (a)
(2).
(a) and (b)
(3).
(b) and (c)
(4).
(d) and (c)
93.
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?

(1).
Uremia and Renal Calculi
(2).
Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(3).
Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(4).
Uremia and Ketonuria
94.
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

(1).
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(2).
AIDS. Malaria, Filaria
(3).
Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(4).
Gonorhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
95.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i) (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
96.
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 x 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:

(1).
2.5 meters
(2).
2.2 meters
(3).
2.7 meters
(4).
2.0 meters
97.
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:

(1).
trypsinogen into trypsin
(2).
caseinogen into casein
(3).
pepsinogen into pepsin
(4).
protein into polypeptides
98.
Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

(1).
Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary Canal.
(2).
lleum is a highly coiled part.
(3).
Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
(4).
lleum opens into small intestine.
99.
ldentify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

(1).
They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
(2).
They are useful in genetic engineering.
(3).
Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
(4).
Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting- the length of a DNA sequence.
100.
Match the following:

Choose the correct option from the following:

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
101.
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:

(1).
Zygotene
(2).
Diplotene
(3).
Leptotene
(4).
Pachytene
102.
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

(1).
DNA helicase
(2).
DNA polymerase
(3).
RNA polymerase
(4).
DNA ligase
103.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
104.
ldentify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(1).
Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin
(2).
Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(3).
Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of Oxyhaemoglobin
(4).
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2
105.
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy ?

(1).
Abscisic acid
(2).
Phenolic acid
(3).
Para-ascorbic acid
(4).
Gibberellic acid
106.
Match the following diseases with the causativeorganism and select the correct option.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) -(i), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) -(iii), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) -(ii), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) -(ii), (d) - (iv)
107.
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1).
(c) and (d)
(2).
(a), (b) and (d)
(3).
only (d)
(4).
(a) and (b)
108.
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:

(1).
1 molecule of 3-C compound
(2).
1 molecule of 6-C compound
(3).
1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
(4).
2 molecules of 3-C compound
109.
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:

(1).
Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(2).
PS-I to NADP+
(3).
PS-I to ATP synthase
(4).
PS-Il to Cytb16f complex
110.
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:

(1).
Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2).
Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3).
Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4).
Acetocarmine in bright blue light
111.
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

(1).
Depolarisation of auricles
(2).
Depolarisation of ventrices
(3).
Repolarisation of ventricles
(4).
Repolarisation of auricles
112.
The plant parts which consist of two generations- one within the other:
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1).
(a), (b) and (c)
(2).
(c) and (d)
(3).
(a) and (d)
(4).
(a) only
113.
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:

(1).
Sporozoites
(2).
Female gametocytes
(3).
Male gametocytes
(4).
Trophozoites
114.
ldentify the incorrect statement.

(1).
Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
(2).
Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.
(3).
Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.
(4).
Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
115.
Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:

(1).
Convergent evolution
(2).
Industrial melanism
(3).
Natural selection
(4).
Adaptive radiation
116.
ldentify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'l' that controls ABO blood groups.

(1).
A person will have only two of the three alleles.
(2).
When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.
(3).
Allele 'I' does not produce any sugar.
(4).
The gene (I) has three alleles.
117.
The first phase of translation is:

(1).
Recognition of DNA molecule
(2).
Aminoacylation of tRNA
(3).
Recognition of an anti-codon
(4).
Binding of mRNA to ribosome
118.
Ray florets have:

(1).
Superior ovary
(2).
Hypogynous ovary
(3).
Half inferior ovary
(4).
Inferior ovary
119.
The process of growth is maximum during:

(1).
Lag phase
(2).
Senescence
(3).
Dormancy
(4).
Log phase
120.
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are

(1).
Primary roots
(2).
Prop roots
(3).
Lateral roots
(4).
Fibrous roots
121.
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:

(1).
water currents only
(2).
wind and water
(3).
insects and water
(4).
insects or wind
122.
Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment ?

(1).
Floating debris
(2).
Effluents of primary treatment
(3).
Activated sludge
(4).
Primary sludge
123.
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:

(1).
Platyhelminthes
(2).
Aschelminthes
(3).
Annelida
(4).
Ctenophora
124.
ldentify the basic amino acid from the following.

(1).
Glutamic Acid
(2).
Lysine
(3).
Valine
(4).
Tyrosine
125.
In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

(1).
GIFT and ZIFT
(2).
ICSI and ZIFT
(3).
GIFT and ICSI
(4).
ZIFTand IUT
126.
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

(1).
These are involved in ingestion of food partides.
(2).
They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(3).
These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
(4).
They are not bound by any membrane.
127.
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:

(1).
Sutton
(2).
Boveri
(3).
Morgan
(4).
Mendel
128.
Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1).
The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C- peptide.
(2).
The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(3).
Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E-Coli.
(4).
In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.
129.
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?

(1).
Peroxisomes
(2).
Golgi bodies
(3).
Polysomes
(4).
Endoplasmic reticulum
130.
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:

(1).
Alfred Wallace
(2).
Charles Darwin
(3).
Oparin
(4).
Karl Ernst von Baer
131.
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed:

(1).
Ori site
(2).
Palindromic sequence
(3).
Recognition site
(4).
Selectable marker
132.
Which of the following is correct about viroids ?

(1).
They have free RNA without protein coat. .
(2).
They have DNA with protein coat.
(3).
They have free DNA without protein coat.
(4).
They have RNA with protein coat
133.
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:

(1).
Emission of ozone depleting substances
(2).
Release of Green House gases
(3).
Disposal of e-wastes
(4).
Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
134.
The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is:

(1).
One
(2).
Two
(3).
Three
(4).
Zero
135.
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle?

(1).
High concentration of Progesterone
(2).
Low Concentration ofLH
(3).
Low Concentration of FSH
(4).
High concentration of Estrogen
136.
Select the correct match.

(1).
Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait
(2).
Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
(3).
Thalassemia - X-linked
(4).
Haemophilia - Y-linked
137.
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:

(1).
ducts of salivary glands
(2).
proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(3).
eustachian tube
(4).
lining of intestine
138.
Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to:

(1).
Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
(2).
High reflection of light from snow
(3).
Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(4).
Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
139.
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

(1).
Gelidium and Gracilaria
(2).
Anabaena and Volvox
(3).
Chlorella and Spirulina
(4).
Laminaria and Sargassum
140.
The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features:
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath.
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue.
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
ldentify the category of plant and its part:

(1).
Monocotyledonous root
(2).
Dicotyledonous stem
(3).
Dicotyledonous root
(4).
Monocotyledonous stem
141.
How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits ?

(1).
2
(2).
14
(3).
8
(4).
4
142.
Floridean starch has structure similar to:

(1).
Amylopectin and glycogen
(2).
Mannitol and algin
(3).
Laminarin and cellulose
(4).
Starch and cellulose
143.
ldentify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

(1).
Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
(2).
Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
(3).
Nuclear Division takes place.
(4).
DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
144.
By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams ?

(1).
Mutational breedingil ol
(2).
Cross breeding
(3).
Inbreeding
(4).
Out crossing
145.
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

(1).
When ready-made antibodies are directly given, baltiens it is called "Passive immunity".
(2).
Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
(3).
Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
(4).
When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called "Active immunity".
146.
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:

(1).
5'- GGAACC -3`
3'- CCTTGG -5`
(2).
5` - CTTAAG - 3'
3` - GAATTC - 5'
(3).
5` - GGATCC - 3`
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(4).
5' - GAATTC - 3'
3 ' -CTTAAG - 5`
147.
If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because:

(1).
the cockroach does not have nervous system.
(2).
the head holdsa small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
(3).
the head holdsa /3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
(4).
the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
148.
Match the trophic levels with their correct speciesexamples in grassland ecosystem.

Select the correct option:

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - ( i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
149.
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.

(1).
Gibberellin
(2).
Ethylene
(3).
Abscisic acid
(4).
Cytokinin
150.
Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from

(1).
Columnar epithelial cels
(2).
Chondrocytes
(3).
Compound epithelial cells
(4).
Squamous epithelial cells
151.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
152.
Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1).
Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.
(2).
Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
(3).
Adenine does not pair with thymine.
(4).
Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
153.
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity ?

(1).
Madagascar
(2).
Himalayas
(3).
Amazon forests
(4).
Western Ghats of India
154.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
155.
The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:

(1).
Nitrate alone
(2).
Ammonia and oxygen
(3).
Ammonia and hydrogen
(4).
Ammonia alone
156.
Match the following concerning essential elementsand their functions in plants:

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
157.
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

(1).
Reabsorption of Na and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
(2).
Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
(3).
Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(4).
More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
158.
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:

(1).
At the time of copulation
(2).
After zygote formation
(3).
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
(4).
Prior to ovulation
159.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
160.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
161.
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:

(1).
Growth response
(2).
Defence action
(3).
Effect on reproduction
(4).
Nutritive value
162.
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask

(1).
CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
(2).
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(3).
CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(4).
CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
163.
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

Select the correct option from the following:

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
164.
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the halten introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to

(1).
Fungal diseases
(2).
Plant nematodes
(3).
Insect predators
(4).
Insect pests
165.
Choose the correct pair from the following: Break the DNA into

(1).
Polymerases fragments Separate the two strands of
(2).
Nucleases DNA
(3).
Exonucleases Make cuts at specific positions within DNA - Join the two DNA molecules
(4).
Ligases
166.
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at

(1).
Micropyle
(2).
Nucellus
(3).
Chalaza
(4).
Hilum
167.
Strobili or cones are found in

(1).
Pteris
(2).
Marchantia
(3).
Equisetum
(4).
Salvinia
168.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
169.
ldentify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure

(1).
Glycerol, trypsin Chitin, cholesterol
(2).
Cellulose, lecithin
(3).
Inulin, insulin
(4).
Chitin, cholesterol
170.
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

(1).
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
(2).
Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same.
(3).
There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.
(4).
Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.
171.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
172.
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population ?

(1).
Natality
(2).
Mortality
(3).
Species interaction
(4).
Sex ratio
173.
Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
174.
Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals ?

(1).
Collagen
(2).
Lectin
(3).
Insulin
(4).
Haemoglobin
175.
85.Match the following with respect to meiosis
(a) Zygotene | (i) Terminalization
(b) Pachytene | (ii) Chiasmata
(c) Diplotene | (iii) Crossing over
(d) Diakinesis | (iv) Synapsis
Select the correct option from the following:

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
176.
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about:

(1).
20 million
(2).
50 million
(3).
7 million
(4).
1.5 million
177.
The ovary is half inferior in:

(1).
Mustard
(2).
Sunflower
(3).
Plum
(4).
Brinjal
178.
Select the correct statement.

(1).
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(2).
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
(3).
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(4).
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
179.
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is

(1).
Root pressure
(2).
Imbibition
(3).
Plasmolysis
(4).
Transpiration
180.
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G). This process occurs at the end of:

(1).
G1 phase
(2).
S phase
(3).
G2 phase
(4).
M phase