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The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by \(\text{E}_\text{z}\,=\,60\, \text{cos}\left(5\text{x}\,+\,1.5 \times 10^9 \text{t}\right)\,\text{V/m}\). Then the expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field):
In a certain camera, a combination of four thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (p) and magnification (m) for each lens will be, respectively
(1).
\(\text{p}^4\) and \(\text{m}^4\)
(2).
\(4\text{p}\) and \(4\text{m}\)
(3).
\(\text{p}^4\) and \(4\text{m}\)
(4).
\(4\text{p}\) and \(\text{m}^4\)
3.
In some appropriate units, time (t) and position (x) relation of a moving particle is given by \(\text{t}\,=\,\text{x}^2\,+\,\text{x}\). The acceleration of the particle is
Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction, Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.
(1).
15 min, 120 km/h
(2).
9 min, 40 km/h
(3).
25 min, 100 km/h
(4).
10 min, 90 km/h
5.
The current passing through the battery in the given circuit is:
(1).
1.5 A
(2).
2.0 A
(3).
0.5 A
(4).
2.5 A
6.
A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency \(f\) in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:
(1).
\(2f\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{f}{2}\)
(3).
\(f\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3f}{2}\)
7.
An electron (mass \(9 \times 10^{-31} \text{kg}\) and charge \(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\text{C}\)) moving with speed c/100 (c = speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field \(\vec{\text{B}}\) of magnitude \(9 \times 10^{-4}\text{T}\) perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply an uniform electric field \(\vec{\text{E}}\) together with the magnetic field so that the elctron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light \(c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ms}^{-1}\))
(1).
\(\vec{\text{E}}\) is parallel to \(\vec{\text{B}}\) and its magnitude is \(27 \times 10^4 \text{V m}^{-1}\)
(2).
\(\vec{\text{E}}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{\text{B}}\) and its magnitude is \(27 \times 10^4 \text{V m}^{-1}\)
(3).
\(\vec{\text{E}}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{\text{B}}\) and its magnitude is \(27 \times 10^2 \text{V m}^{-1}\)
(4).
\(\vec{\text{E}}\) is parallel to \(\vec{\text{B}}\) and its magnitude is \(27 \times 10^2 \text{V m}^{-1}\)
8.
A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be
(1).
4:1
(2).
1:4
(3).
1:2
(4).
2:1
9.
A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is:
(1).
3.0 A
(2).
1.5 A
(3).
2.0 A
(4).
2.5 A
10.
Two gases A and B are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius \(\text{r}_\text{A}\) and \(\text{r}_\text{B}\), respectively. On supplyig an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant presurre, the pistons of gas A nd B are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm, respectively. If the change in their internal energy is the same, then the ration \(\displaystyle \frac{\text{r}_\text{A}}{\text{r}_\text{B}}\) is equal to
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{4}{3}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
11.
A container has two chambers of volumes \(\text{V}_1\,=\, 2\,\text{litres}\) and \(\text{V}_2\,=\, 3\,\text{litres}\) separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contain n1 = 5 and n2 = 4 moles of ideal gas at pressure p1 = 1 and p2 = 2 atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains equilibrium pressure of
(1).
1.8 atm
(2).
1.3 atm
(3).
1.6 atm
(4).
1.4 atm
12.
The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?
(1).
124 earth days
(2).
88 earth days
(3).
225 earth days
(4).
172 earth days
13.
To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 20 \(\Omega\), a capacitor of reactance 25 \(\Omega\) and an inductor of reactance 45 \(\Omega\) are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively
(1).
\(15.6\, \text{A}\) and \(45^\circ\)
(2).
\(7.8\, \text{A}\) and \(30^\circ\)
(3).
\(7.8\, \text{A}\) and \(45^\circ\)
(4).
\(15.6\, \text{A}\) and \(30^\circ\)
14.
A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series, The net effective resistance of combination is:
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R}{8}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R}{64}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R}{32}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{R}{16}\)
15.
The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a _______ gate.
(1).
NOR
(2).
AND
(3).
NAND
(4).
OR
16.
Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spehere A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as:
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3F}{8}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3F}{5}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2F}{3}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{F}{2}\)
17.
Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier callipers. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V S D) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M S D). The least division in the M S is 0.1 cm and the zero of V S is at x = 0.1 cm when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed. If the main scale reading of the diameter is M = 5 cm and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction is
(1).
5.00 cm
(2).
5.18 cm
(3).
5.08 cm
(4).
4.98 cm
18.
Which of the following options represent the variation of photoelectric current with property of light shown on x-axis?
(1).
B and D
(2).
A only
(3).
A and C
(4).
A and D
19.
A particle of mass m is moving around the origin with a constant force F pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius of the \(\text{n}^{\text{th}}\) orbit and the particle's speed v in the orbit depends on n as
A bob of heavy mass m is suspended by a light string of length l. The bob is given a horizontal velocity \(v_0\) as shown in the figure. If the string gets slack at some point P making an angle \(\theta\) from the horizontal, the ratio of the speed v of the bob at point P to its initial speed \(v_0\) is:
A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (\(\text{D}_1\)) and (\(\text{D}_2\)) is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage \(\text{V}_\text{in}\,=\,220\,sin\left(100\pi \text{t}\right)\) volt, then at t= 15 msec
(1).
(\(\text{D}_1\)) and (\(\text{D}_2\)) both are reverse biased
(2).
(\(\text{D}_1\)) is forward biased, (\(\text{D}_2\)) is reverse biased
(3).
(\(\text{D}_1\)) is reverse biased, (\(\text{D}_2\)) is forward biased
(4).
(\(\text{D}_1\)) and (\(\text{D}_2\)) both are forward biased
22.
A baloon is made of a material of surface tension S and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in it) has small area A. It is filled with a gas of density \(\rho\) and takes a spherical share of radius R. When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius r changes from R to 0 (zero) in time T. If the speed v(r) of gas coming out of the balloon depends on r as \(r^a\) and \(\text{T} \propto \text{S}^\alpha \text{A}^\beta \rho^\gamma \text{R}^\delta\) then
A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm, the magnification in microscope is
(1).
250
(2).
100
(3).
125
(4).
150
24.
A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:
(1).
Zero between the plates and non-zero outside
(2).
Zero at all places
(3).
Constant between the plates and zero outside the plates
(4).
Non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting peripheries of the plates
25.
An electric dipole with dipole moment \(5 \times 10^{-4}\) Cm is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude \(4 \times 10^5\) N/C. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of \(60^\circ\) with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:
(1).
1.5 J
(2).
0.8 J
(3).
1.0 J
(4).
1.2 J
26.
There are two inclined surfaces of equal length (L) and same angle of inclination \(45^\circ\) with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction (\(\mu_k\)) between the object and the rough surface is close to
(1).
0.75
(2).
0.25
(3).
0.40
(4).
0.5
27.
De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)
(1).
2.67 nm
(2).
0.067 nm
(3).
0.67 nm
(4).
1.67 nm
28.
The sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.
(1).
108 days
(2).
100 days
(3).
105 days
(4).
115 days
29.
A physical quantity P is related to four observations a, b, c, and d as follows: \(\text{P}\,=\,\text{a}^3\text{b}^2 / \text{c} \sqrt{d}\) The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c, and d are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity P is
(1).
15%
(2).
10%
(3).
2%
(4).
13%
30.
The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by d. Two slabs of different dielectric constants \(\text{K}_1\, \text{and}\, \text{K}_2\) with thickness \(\displaystyle \frac{3}{8}\text{d}\) and \(\displaystyle \frac{d}{2}\), respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between plates.
If \(\text{K}_1\,=\,1.25\, \text{K}_2\), the value of \(\text{K}_1\) is:
(1).
1.33
(2).
2.66
(3).
2.33
(4).
1.60
31.
A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take \(g\, =\, 9.8 m/s^2\))
(1).
84 NS
(2).
21 NS
(3).
7 NS
(4).
0
32.
An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressures at temperature \(27^\circ\ \text{C}\). The mass of oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to: [Given, \(\text{R}\,=\, \frac{100}{12}\text{J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}\) and molecular mass of \(\text{O}_2\,=\, 32\), 1 atm pressure \(=\,1.01 \times 10^5 \text{N/m}\)]
(1).
0.156 kg
(2).
0.125 kg
(3).
0.144 kg
(4).
0.116 kg
33.
AB is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference \(\text{"V}_\text{A}\,-\,\text{V}_\text{B}\text{"}\), at the instant when current \(i\,=\, 2\text{A}\) and is increasing at a rate of 1 amp/second is:
(1).
10 volt
(2).
5 volt
(3).
6 volt
(4).
9 volt
34.
In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency \(\omega\left(\text{t}\right)\) and average amplitude \(\text{A}\left(\text{t}\right)\) of the system change with time t. Which one of the following options schematically depicts these changes correctly?
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
35.
A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field B states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is n(h/e) where n is an integer, h is Planck's constant and e is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be (m is the mass of the electron)
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{heB}}{2\pi\text{m}}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{he}}{\pi\text{m}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{he}}{2\pi\text{m}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{heB}}{\pi\text{m}}\)
36.
A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is :
(1).
36 N
(2).
16 N
(3).
27 N
(4).
32 N
37.
Consider a water tank shown in the figure.It has one wall at x = L and can be taken to be very wide in the Z direction.When filled with a liquid of surface tension S and density P, the liquid surface makes angle \(\theta_0\).(\(\theta_0 \,<<\,1\)) with the x-axis at x = L. If y(x) is the height of the surface then the equation for y(x) is (take \(\theta \left(\text{x} \right)\,=\, sin\theta \left(\text{x} \right)\,=\,tan\theta \left(\text{x} \right)\,=\, \frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}} \text{, g}\) is the acceleration due to gravity)
The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at \(22.5^\circ\) from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is (\(\text{I}_0\) is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{I}_0}{16}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{I}_0}{2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{I}_0}{4}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{I}_0}{8}\)
39.
A photon and an electron (mass m) have the same energy E. The ratio (\(\displaystyle \frac{\lambda_\text{photon}}{ \lambda_\text{electron}}\) ) of their de Broglie wavelengths is: (c is the speed of light)
An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then-
(1).
transmitted light is completely polarized with angle of refraction close to \(30^\circ\)
(2).
reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to \(60^\circ\)
(3).
reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to \(30^\circ\)
(4).
both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and refraction close to \(60^\circ\) and \(30^\circ\), respectively.
41.
A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 60° with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is
(take \( g\, =\, 10 \text{m/s}^2\))
(1).
\(200\, \sqrt{3}\, \text{N}\)
(2).
\(100\, \sqrt{N}\)
(3).
\(100 \, \sqrt{3}\, \text{N}\)
(4).
\(200\, \text{N}\)
42.
Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity 2K while that in the middle has thermal conductivity K. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature 3T and the right end at T. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is \(\text{T}_1\), and that at the right junction is \(\text{T}_2\). The ratio \(\text{T}_1\,\\,\text{T}_2\) is
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{4}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{4}{3}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{3}\)
43.
The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If \(\text{F}_\text{A}\) and \(\text{F}_\text{B}\) are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio \(\text{F}_\text{A}\,/ \,\text{F}_\text{B}\) is
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{3}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{3}\)
44.
A sphere of radius R is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius 2R as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is :
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{7}{64}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{7}{8}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{7}{40}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{7}{57}\)
45.
Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants \(\text{k}_1\) and \(\text{k}_2\), respectively, oscillate vertically. if their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio (\( \text{A}_Q\)/\(\text{A}_P\)) of the amplitude \(\text{A}_Q\) of mass Q to the amplitude \(\text{A}_P\) of mass P is
Which one of the following reactions does
NOT give benzene as the product ?
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
47.
Match List - I with List - II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-IV, B-III, C-IL, D-I
(2).
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3).
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4).
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
48.
If the half-life (\(t_{1/2}\)) for a first order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is closest to :
(1).
10 minutes
(2).
2 minutes
(3).
4 minutes
(4).
5 minutes
49.
Match List I with List Il Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2).
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3).
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4).
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
50.
Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula C4H8O is
(1).
11
(2).
6
(3).
8
(4).
10
51.
For the reaction \(A\left(g\right) \rightleftharpoons 2B\left(g\right)\), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K. [Given : R = 0.0831 L atm mol-1 K-1]Kp for the reaction at 1000 K is
(1).
0.021
(2).
83.1
(3).
2.077 × 105
(4).
0.033
52.
If the molar conductivity (\(\Lambda_m\)) of a 0.050 mol L-1 solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm2 mol-1, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be
[Assume \(\Lambda_+^\circ\, =\, 349.6 \,S\, cm^2\, mol^{-1}\) and \(\Lambda_-^2\, =\, 50.4\, S\, cm^2\, mol^{-1}\)]
(1).
0.215
(2).
0.115
(3).
0.125
(4).
0.225
53.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.
Statement II : As bond order increases, the bond length increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1).
Statement I is false but Statement II
is true
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are true
(3).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are false
(4).
Statement I is true but Statement II
is false
54.
The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes n = 2 → n = 3 and n = 4 → n = 6 transitions, respectively, is
(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{36}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{16}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{9}\)
55.
The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is,
A. \([Co\left(NH_3\right)_6]^{3+}\)
B. \([Co\left(CN\right)_6]^{3-}\)
C. \([Cu\left(H_2O\right)_4]^{2+}\)
D. \([Ti \left(H_2O \right)_6 ]^{3+}\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
C < A < D < B
(2).
B < D < A < C
(3).
B < A < D < C
(4).
C < D < A < B.
56.
If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s-1, how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L-1 concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L-1 ?
(Given: log 2 = 0391)
(1).
21.0 s
(2).
69.3 s
(3).
23.1 s
(4).
210 s
57.
Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-II, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2).
A-IV, B-III, С-I, D-II
(3).
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4).
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
58.
The major product of the following reaction is
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
59.
Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?
(1).
1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane
(2).
Pent-1-ene
(3).
2-Methylhex-2-ene
(4).
1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane
60.
Among the following, choose the ones with equal number of atoms. A. 212 g of \(Na_2 CO_3 \left(s\right)\) [molar mass = 106 g]
B. 248 g of\( Na_2 O \left(s\right)\) [molar mass = 62 g]
C. 240 g of \(NaOH \left(s\right)\) [molar mass = 40 g]
D. 12 g of \(H_2 \left(g\right)\) [molar mass = 2 g] E. 220 g of \(CO_2 \left(g \right)\) [molar mass = 44 g] Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
B, D, and E only
(2).
A, B, and C only
(3).
A, B, and D only
(4).
B, C, and D only
61.
Among the given compounds I - III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of C-H bond marked with * is :
(1).
II > III > I
(2).
II > I > III
(3).
I > II > III
(4).
III > II > I
62.
The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol of \(Ba^{2+}\) is:
[Given : standard heat of formation of \(\text{So}^{2-}_4\) ion (aq) = - 216 kcal/mol, standard heat of crystallisation of \(\text{BaSO}_4(s)\) = - 4.5 kcal/mol, standard heat of formation of \(\text{ BaSO}_4(s)\) = - 349 kcal/mol]
(1).
+ 220.5
(2).
- 128.5
(3).
- 133.0
(4).
+ 133.0
63.
Consider the following compounds: \(\text{K0}_2\), \(\text{H}_2\text{0}_2\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\) The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,
(1).
+4, -4, and +6
(2).
+1, -1, and +6
(3).
+2, -2, and +6
(4).
+1, -2, and +4
64.
Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?
(1).
\([\text{Co}\left(\text{NH}_3\right)_5 CI]CI\)
(2).
\([\text{Co}\left(\text{NH}_3\right)_5 CI_3]\)
(3).
\([\text{Co}\left(\text{NH}_3\right)_4 CI_2]\)
(4).
\([\text{Co}\left(\text{NH}_3\right)_56CI_3]\)
65.
Which of the following are paramagnetic?
A. \([\text{NICI}_4]^{2-}\)
B. \(\text{Ni(CO)}_4\)
C. \([\text{NICN}_4]^{2-}\)
D. \([\text{NI(H)}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+}\)
E. \(\text{Ni(PPh}_3\text{)}_4\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
A, D and E only
(2).
A and C only
(3).
B and E only
(4).
A and D only
66.
Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
67.
Match List - I with List - Il
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2).
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3).
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4).
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
68.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.
Statement II : The number of unpaired electrons in a \(Cr^{2+}\) ion (Z=24) is the same as that of a \(Nd^{3+}\) ion (Z= 60).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
Statement I is false but Statement II
is true
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are true
(3).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are false
(4).
Statement I is true but Statement II
is false
69.
The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is :
Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values \(Ka_1\), \(Ka_2\), and \(Ka_3\), respectively,while K is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true?
A. \(\text{log} K\) = \(\text{log} Ka_1\) + \(\text{log}Ka_2\) +\(\text{log}Ka_3\)
B. \(H_3PO_4\) is a stronger acid than \(H_2PO_4^-\) and \(HPO_4^{2-}\).
С. \(Ka_1\) > \(Ka_2\) > \(Ka_3\).
D. \(\displaystyle Ka_1\,= \,\frac{Ka_3\,+\,Ka_2}{2}\). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
A, B and C only
(2).
A and B only
(3).
A and C only
(4).
B, C and D only
71.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. Unlike \(G_a\) that has a very high melting point, \(G_s\) has a very low melting point. B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same. C. Ar, K+, C-, Ca2+, and S2- are allisoelectronic species. D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si is Si > Al > Mg > Na. E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
A, C, and E only
(2).
A, B, and E only
(3).
C and E only
(4).
C and D only
72.
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine. Statement II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
73.
Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?
(1).
\(\text{0.015M}\,C_6H_12O_6\)
(2).
\(\text{0.01M Urea}\)
(3).
\(\text{0.01M}\, KNO_3\)
(4).
\(\text{0.01M}\, Na_2SO_4\)
74.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273 - 278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.
Statement Il : Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
(3).
Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect
75.
Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion
(1).
\(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4\)
(2).
(i) \(LiAIH_4\), (ii) \(H^+ /H_2O\)
(3).
(i) \(AIH\left(iBu\right)_2\), (ii) \(H_2O\)
(4).
(i) \(NaBH_4\), (ii) \(H^+ / H_2O\)
76.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Reason (R) : lodine is a better leaving group because of its large size. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A is false but R is true
(2).
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3).
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(4).
A is true but R is false
77.
The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is :
(1).
HCOOH > (СН3)3ССООН > (СН3)2СНСООH > СН3COOH
(2).
(СНз)3ССООН > (СН3)2СHCOOH > СН3СООН > НСООН
(3).
СН3СООН > (СН3)2СHСOOH > (СН3)3ССООН > HCOOH
(4).
НСООН > СН3СООН > (СН3)2СНСООH > (СН3)3ССООН
78.
Which one of the following reactions does
NOT belong to "Lassaigne's test"?
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
79.
How many products (including stereo isomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound?
(1).
6
(2).
2
(3).
3
(4).
5
80.
Sugar 'X' A. is found in honey. B. is a ketó sugar. C. exists in \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) - anomeric forms. D. is laevorotatory. 'X' is :
(1).
Sucrose
(2).
D-Glucose
(3).
D-Fructose
(4).
Maltose
81.
Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
(1).
Law of gaseous volume
(2).
Law of conservation of mass
(3).
Law of constant proportion
(4).
Law of multiple proportion
82.
Higher yield of NO in \(N_2\left(8\right)\, +\, O_2\left(g\right)\, \rightleftharpoons\, 2NO\left(g\right)\) can be obtained at [\(\Delta H\) of the reaction = +180.7 kJ mol-1] A. higher temperature B. lower temperature C. higher concentration of N2 D. higher concentration of O2 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
A, C, D only
(2).
A, D only
(3).
B, C only
(4).
B, C, D only
83.
Match List - I with List - II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2).
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3).
A-ll, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4).
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
84.
Match List - I with List - II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2).
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3).
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4).
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
85.
Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He+ and Li2+ are
[Given RH = 2.18 × 10-18 J, ao = 52.9 pm]
Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements? A. [Ne]3s1 B. [Ar]3d3 4s2C. [Kr]4d10 5s2 5p5D. [Ar]3d104s1 E. [Rn]5f0 6d27s2 Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
(1).
A, C and D only
(2).
B and E only
(3).
A and C only
(4).
D and E only
87.
\(\text{C(s) + 2H}_2 \left( g \right) \rightarrow CH_4(g)\);\(\Delta H = -74.8 kJ mol^{-l}\)
Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction?
[R → reactants; P → products]
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
88.
predict the major product 'P' in the following sequence of reactions -
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
89.
Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned
A.\(H_2O\, >\, NH_3 \,> \,CHCI_3\) - dipole moment
B. \(XeF_4\, >\, XeO_3\, >\, XeF_2\) - number of lone pairs on central atom
C. \(O-H \,>\, C-H \,>\, N-O \) - bond length
D. \(N_2 \,>\, O_2 \,>\, H_2\) - bond enthalpy
Choose the correct answer fromthe options given below:
(1).
B, C only
(2).
A, D only
(3).
B, D only
(4).
A, C only
90.
5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively, Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?
(1).
The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.
(2).
The solution shows positive deviation.
(3).
The solution shows negative deviation.
(4).
The solution is ideal.
91.
What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality riski to mother
B. Expensive instrüments and reagents
C. Husband/wife neçessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in fndia
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1).
A, B, C, E, F only
(2).
B, D, F only
(3).
A, C, D, F only
(4).
A, B, C, D only
92.
A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is :
(1).
Endoplasmic Reticulum
(2).
Mesosome
(3).
Chromatophores
(4).
Cristae
93.
While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal ?
(1).
Spongocoelomate
(2).
Acoelomate
(3).
Pseudocoelomate
(4).
Schizocoelomate
94.
Which one of the following statements refersto Reductionist Biology?
(1).
Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
(2).
Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
(3).
Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
(4).
Chemical approach to study andunderstand living organisms.
95.
The first menstruation is called :
(1).
Ovulation
(2).
Menopause
(3).
Menarche
(4).
Diapause
96.
Given below are two statements : Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is correct
(2).
Both statement I and statement Il are correct
(3).
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
97.
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones :
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases strength of heart contraction Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
D Only
(2).
C and D Only
(3).
B, Cland D Only
(4).
A, C and D Only
98.
Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
(1).
Analogy, divergent
(2).
Analogy, convergent
(3).
Homology, divergent
(4).
Homology, convergent
99.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A is false but R is true
(2).
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3).
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(4).
A is true but R is false
100.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies
DNA following the equation.
(1).
2N2
(2).
N2
(3).
2n
(4).
2n+1
101.
Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2).
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3).
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4).
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
102.
Given below are two statements : Statement I: In a floral formula \(\oplus\) stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary. Statement II : In a floral formula \(\oplus\) stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
(3).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but Statement II
is incorrect
103.
From the statements given below choose the correct option :
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
(1).
B, D, E are true
(2).
A, B, C are true
(3).
A, B, D are true
(4).
A, B, E are true
104.
Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
C, E, A, B, D
(2).
A, C, E, B, D
(3).
C, E, A, D, B
(4).
A, C, E, D, B
105.
The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
D, E, A, B, C
(2).
D, E, A, C, B
(3).
B, E, A, C, D
(4).
B, E, A, D, C
106.
Which are correct:
A. Computed tomography and magnetic
resonance imaging detect cancers of
intemal organs.
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill
non-cancerous cells.
C. \(\alpha\)-interferon activate the cancer patients
imemune system and helps in destroying
the tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological
response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts
are decreased.
Choosethe correet answer from the options
given below:
(1).
A and C only
(2).
B and D only
(3).
D and E only
(4).
C and D only
107.
Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze
the following reaction :
S - G + S# → S + S# - G
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
S → a substrate
S# → another substrate
(1).
Ligase
(2).
Hydrolase
(3).
Lyase
(4).
Transferase
108.
Find the correct statements :
A. In human pregnancy, the major organ
systems are formed at the end of 12
weeks.
B. In human pregnancy the major organ
systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after
one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits
develop by the end of second month.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of
hair is usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1).
A, C, D and E Only
(2).
A and E Only
(3).
B and C Only
(4).
B, C, D and E Only
109.
Which of the following is an example of non-
distilled alcoholic bheverage produced by yeast?
(1).
Rum
(2).
Whisky
(3).
Brandy
(4).
Beer
110.
Given below are two statements Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is
considered the first genetic material evolved to
carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as
a genetic material and also as a catalyst for
some important biochemical reactions in living
systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and
is a more stable genetic material. Its double
helical strands being complementary, resist
changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct
(2).
Both statement I and statement II
are correct
(3).
Both statemént I and statement II
are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but statement II
is incorrect
111.
Given below are two statements Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal
RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes
place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method
of cellular defence,
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given bclow:
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
(3).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but Statement II
is incorrect
112.
Which of the following diagrams is correct withregard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
113.
What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic
trait?
(1).
X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
(2).
Mendelian inheritance pattern
(3).
Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
(4).
Autosomal dominant pattern
114.
In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of
endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-
rich layer called :
(1).
Aleurone layer
(2).
Coleoptile
(3).
Coleorhiza
(4).
Integument
115.
Match List I with List II: Choose the option with all correct matches
(1).
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2).
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3).
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4).
A-I, B-lI, C-IV, D-III
116.
Which of the following genetically engineered
organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare
human insulin?
(1).
Phage
(2).
Bacterium
(3).
Yeast
(4).
Virus
117.
Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm
prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5 end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3 end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1).
C, D, E only
(2).
A, B, C only
(3).
B, C, D only
(4).
B, C, E only
118.
Match List - I with List - II Choose the correct answer from the optionsgiven below :
(1).
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2).
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3).
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4).
A-IV, B-II, CIII, D-I
119.
Match List - I with List - II Choose the correet answer from the optionsgiven below :
(1).
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2).
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3).
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4).
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
120.
Which chromosome in the human genome has
the highest number of genes?
(1).
Chromosome 10
(2).
Chromosome X
(3).
ChromosomeY
(4).
Chromosome I
121.
Which one of the following is an example of
ex-situ conservation?
(1).
Protected areas
(2).
National Park
(3).
Wildlife Sanctuary
(4).
Zoos and botanical gardens
122.
In the above represented plasmid an alien pieceof DNA is inserted af EcoRI site. Which of thefollowing strategies will be chosen to select therecombinant colonies?
(1).
Blue color colonies grown on ampicillinplates can beselected.
(2).
Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containingmedium plate.
(3).
Blue color colonies will be selected.
(4).
White color cofonies will be selected.
123.
What is the name of the blood vessel that
carries deoxygenated blood from the body to
the heart in a frog ?
(1).
Vena cava
(2).
Aorta
(3).
Pulmonary artery
(4).
Pulmonary vein
124.
Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1).
E only
(2).
A only
(3).
D only
(4).
Bonly
125.
Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch
is an example of which of the following?
(1).
Amensalism
(2).
Commensalism
(3).
Mutualism
(4).
Predation
126.
Which one of the following phytohormones
promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in
the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
(1).
Cytokinin
(2).
Ethylene
(3).
Abscisic acid
(4).
Gibberellin
127.
The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
(1).
NADH dehydrogenase
(2).
Cytochrome bc1
(3).
Succinate dehydrogenase
(4).
Cytochrome c oxidase
128.
Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
(1).
(I) (KCal m-2)yr-1
(2).
gm-2
(3).
KCal m-2
(4).
KCal m-3
129.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate. Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A is false but R is true
(2).
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3).
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(4).
A is true but R is false
130.
Genes R and Y follow independent assortment.
If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
(1).
Phenotypic ratior-9 : 7
(2).
Phenotypic ratio =1 : 2: 1
(3).
Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
(4).
Phenotypic ratio - 9: 3: 3 : 1
131.
What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
(1).
To regulate cell growth
(2).
To separate the chromosomes
(3).
To synthesize new DNA
(4).
To repair damaged DNA
132.
How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
(1).
No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(2).
2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(3).
1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(4).
1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
133.
Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
(1).
Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules
(2).
Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains
(3).
The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds
(4).
Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules
134.
Consider the following:
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
B and C are true
(2).
A and B are true
(3).
A and C are true
(4).
B and D are true
135.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1).
A is false but R is true
(2).
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3).
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4).
A is true but R is false
136.
The blue and white selectable markers have been
developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have
DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
(3).
Both Statement I and Statement II
are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect
137.
In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
(1).
Gaseous exchange
(2).
Sexual reproduction
(3).
Asexual reproduction
(4).
Nutrient absorption
138.
Match List I with List II. Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1).
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2).
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3).
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4).
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
139.
With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.
(1).
Zero
(2).
1/4
(3).
2-Jan
(4).
8-Jan
140.
Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
(1).
Chilli
(2).
Petunia
(3).
Datura
(4).
Pea
141.
Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
(1).
Franklin Stahl,
(2).
George Gamow
(3).
Francis Crick
(4).
Jacque Monod
142.
Given below are twol statements Statement I : In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. Statement II : Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct
(2).
Both statement I and statement II
are correct
(3).
Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
143.
All living members of the class Cyclostomata
are:
(1).
Ectoparasite
(2).
Free living
(3).
Endoparasite
(4).
Symbiotic
144.
Histones are enriched with -
(1).
Phenylalanine & Arginine
(2).
Lysine & Arginine
(3).
Leucine & Lysine
(4).
Phenylalanine & Leucin
145.
Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
146.
Which of the following statements about
RuBisCO is true?
(1).
It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
(2).
It is active only in the dark.
(3).
It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon digxide.
(4).
It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
147.
Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2).
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3).
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4).
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
148.
The protein portion of an enzyme is called :
(1).
Prosthetic group
(2).
Cofactor
(3).
Coenzyme
(4).
Apoenzyme
149.
Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
B and C only
(2).
C and D only
(3).
A and B only
(4).
D and E only
150.
Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a nonspecific type of defence in the human body?
(1).
Humoral Immunity
(2).
Acquired Immunity
(3).
Innate Immunity
(4).
Cell-mediated Immunity
151.
Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
(1).
\(\gamma\) (gamma)
(2).
\(\alpha\) (alpha)
(3).
\(\sigma\) (sigma)
(4).
\(\rho\) (rho)
152.
Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus ?
(1).
Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
(2).
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(3).
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(4).
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
153.
Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
C and E only
(2).
A and B only
(3).
A and C only
(4).
C and D only
154.
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is correct
(2).
Both statement I and statement II
are correct
(3).
Both statement I and statement Il are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but statement Il is incorrect
155.
Role of the water vascular system in
Echinoderms is :
A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
B, D and E Only
(2).
A and B Only
(3).
A and C Only
(4).
B and C Only
156.
After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like:
A. thymus
C. spleen
B. bone marrow
D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
C, D, E only
(2).
B, C, D only
(3).
A, B, C only
(4).
E, A, B only
157.
Match List I with List Il : Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1).
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2).
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3).
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4).
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
158.
Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.
(1).
B, D, E only
(2).
A, B, C only
(3).
A, C, E only
(4).
A, D, E only
159.
Match List I with List II. Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1).
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2).
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3).
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4).
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
160.
Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
(1).
Its bioavailability will be increased
(2).
Human body will elicit strong immune response
(3).
It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (Gl) tract
(4).
Because of structural variation
161.
Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
(1).
Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
(2).
Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
(3).
Seeds are naked.
(4).
Seeds are absent.
162.
Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(1).
The statement is false for both the environment
(2).
The statement is true for water but false for land
(3).
The statement is true for both the environment
(4).
The statement is false for water but true for land
163.
Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via
RNAi because of -
(1).
Non-complementary ssRNA
(2).
Complementary dsRNA
(3).
Inhibitory ssRNA
(4).
Complementary tRNA
164.
Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
(1).
They have 75% identical genetic content.
(2).
They are monozygotic twins.
(3).
They are fraternal twins.
(4).
They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
165.
Match List I with List II : Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1).
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2).
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3).
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4).
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
166.
In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
(1).
Kidney and lower part of body
(2).
Liver and intestine
(3).
Liver and kidney
(4).
Kidney and intestine
167.
Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2).
A-IL, B-I, C-III D-IV
(3).
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4).
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
168.
Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by :
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A, B and D Only
(2).
A, B and C Only
(3).
A, B, C and D
(4).
A, C and D Only
169.
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
(1).
Removing clots from blood vessels
(2).
Curd production
(3).
Ethanol production
(4).
Liver disease treatment
170.
Who is known as the father of Ecology in
India?
(1).
Birbal Sahni
(2).
S. R. Kashyap
(3).
Ramdeo Misra
(4).
Ram Udar
171.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A is false but R is true
(2).
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3).
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4).
A is true but R is false
172.
Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to :
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1).
B, C, D only
(2).
A, B only
(3).
A, B, C only
(4).
A, B, D only
173.
Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below?
(1).
E, D, C, B, A
(2).
B, A, D, E, C
(3).
B, A, E, C, D
(4).
D, E, C,A, B
174.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A is false but R is true
(2).
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3).
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4).
A is true but R is false
175.
Which one of the following enzymes contains
'Haem' as the prosthetic group?
(1).
Catalase
(2).
RuBisCo
(3).
Carbonic anhydrase
(4).
Succinate dehydrogenase
176.
Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1).
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2).
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3).
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4).
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
177.
Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
(1).
Phloem parenchyma is absent.
(2).
Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
(3).
Vascular bundles are scattered.
(4).
Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
178.
Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad ?
(1).
First digit of the fore limb
(2).
First and Second digit of fore limb
(3).
First digit of hind limb
(4).
Second digit of fore limb
179.
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement Il: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1).
Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is correct
(2).
Both statement I and statement Il are correct
(3).
Both statement I and statement Il are incorrect
(4).
Statement I is correct but statement Il is incorrect
180.
Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.
