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1.
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
2.
The area of a rectangular field (in m2 ) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is

(1).
138 × 101
(2).
1382
(3).
1382.5
(4).
14 × 102
3.
The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is

(1).
\(5.6 \times 10^6\, m^3\)
(2).
\(5.6 \times 10^3\, m^3\)
(3).
\(5.6 \times 10^{-3}\, m^3\)
(4).
\(5.6\,m^3\)
4.
The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st , 2nd , 3rd and 4th second

(1).
1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(2).
1 : 4 : 9 : 16
(3).
1 : 3 : 5 : 7
(4).
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
5.
The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
6.
The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to

(1).
The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
(2).
The rms value of the ac source
(3).
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{2}\) times the rms value of the ac source
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) times the rms value of the ac source
7.
A ball is projected with a velocity, \(10\, ms^{−1} \), at an angle of \( 60^\circ \) with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be

(1).
Zero
(2).
\(5 \sqrt{3}\, ms^{-1} \)
(3).
\(5 \,ms^{-1} \)
(4).
\(10 \,ms^{-1} \)
8.
The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is

(1).
\(0^\circ \)
(2).
\(45^\circ \)
(3).
\(90^\circ \)
(4).
\(180^\circ \)
9.
Two point charges −q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R (R ≫ L) varies as:

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{R^2}\)
(2).
\(\displaystyle\frac{1}{R^3}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle\frac{1}{R^4}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle\frac{1}{R^6}\)
10.
A wheat stone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X , the resistances P and Q :

(1).
Should be approximately equal to 2X
(2).
Should be approximately equal and are small
(3).
Should be very large and unequal
(4).
Do not play any significant role
11.
An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms−1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N . The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms−2)

(1).
23000
(2).
20000
(3).
34500
(4).
23500
12.
A body of mass \(60\,g\) experiences a gravitational force of \(3.0\,N\), when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is

(1).
\(0.05\,N/kg\)
(2).
\(50\,N/kg\)
(3).
\(20\,N/kg\)
(4).
\(180\,N/kg\)
13.
Plane angle and solid angle have

(1).
Units but no dimensions
(2).
Dimensions but no units
(3).
No units and no dimensions
(4).
Both units and dimensions
14.
A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass flyoff along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is

(1).
v
(2).
\(\sqrt{2}\) v
(3).
2\(\sqrt{2}\) v
(4).
3\(\sqrt{2}\) v
15.
The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad ∕ s2 is

(1).
\(2\pi\)
(2).
\(4\pi\)
(3).
\(12\pi\)
(4).
\(104\pi\)
16.
Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is

(1).
\(\displaystyle \frac{10}{3}\) m
(2).
\(\displaystyle\frac{20}{3}\) m
(3).
\(\displaystyle10\) m
(4).
\(\displaystyle5\) m
17.
The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is

(1).
2 : 1
(2).
\(\sqrt{2}\) : 1
(3).
4 : 1
(4).
1 : \(\sqrt{2}\)
18.
An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is

(1).
1
(2).
2
(3).
3
(4).
4
19.
The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of \(30^ \circ\) and \(45^ \circ\) with the x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is

(1).
\(\sqrt{3} : 1\)
(2).
\(1:1\)
(3).
\(1:2\)
(4).
\(1 : \sqrt{3}\)
20.
When two monochromatic lights of frequency, v and \(\displaystyle \frac{v}{2}\) are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potential becomes \(\displaystyle \frac{V_s}{2}\) and \(\displaystyle V_s\) respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is

(1).
2 v
(2).
3 v
(3).
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{3}v\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}v\)
21.
A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid.The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is

(1).
A
(2).
B
(3).
C
(4).
D
22.
If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble

(1).
Decreases
(2).
Increases
(3).
Remains the same
(4).
Is equal to the atmospheric pressure
23.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.
Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3).
(A) is true but (R) is false
(4).
(A) is false but R ) is true
24.

In the given circuits (a), (b), and (c), the potential drop across the two p − n junctions are equal in

(1).
Circuit (a) only
(2).
Circuit (b) only
(3).
Circuit (c) only
(4).
Both circuits (a) and (c)
25.
In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be

(1).
Zero
(2).
30 Hz
(3).
60 Hz
(4).
120 Hz
26.

The truth table for the given logic circuit is

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
27.
A square loop of side 1m and resistance 1Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T . If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is

(1).
2 weber
(2).
0.5 weber
(3).
1 weber
(4).
Zero weber
28.
A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H , capacitance 10 μF , resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200 sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is v0 and the frequency of the ac source is v, then

(1).
\(\displaystyle v_0\, =\, v\, =\, 50\) Hz
(2).
\(\displaystyle v_0\, =\, v\, =\, \frac{50}{\pi}\) Hz
(3).
\(\displaystyle v_0\, =\, \frac{50}{\pi}\) Hz, \(v\, =\, 50\) Hz
(4).
\(\displaystyle v\, =\, 100\)Hz; \(\displaystyle v_0\, =\, \frac{100}{\pi}\) Hz
29.
A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad−1. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10−5T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be

(1).
0.25 A
(2).
1.5 A
(3).
1 A
(4).
2 A
30.
Two pendulums of length \(121\, cm\) and \(100\, cm\) start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:

(1).
\(11\)
(2).
\(9\)
(3).
\(10\)
(4).
\(8\)
31.
If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is

(1).
\(1 : 1\)
(2).
\(\sqrt{2} : 1\)
(3).
\(1 : \sqrt{2}\)
(4).
\(1 : 2\)
32.
Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 ≫ R2) have equal charges. The potential would be

(1).
More on bigger sphere
(2).
More on smaller sphere
(3).
Equal on both the spheres
(4).
Dependent on the material property of the sphere
33.
A capacitor of capacitance C = 900pF is charged fully by 100V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is

(1).
4.5 × 10−6 J
(2).
3.25 × 10−6 J
(3).
2.25 × 10−6 J
(4).
1.5 × 10−6 J
34.
In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is :
\(\displaystyle ^{23} _{11} \,Na \rightarrow\,X+e^+ + v\)

(1).
\(\displaystyle ^{23} _{11} \,Na \)
(2).
\(\displaystyle ^{23} _{10} \,Ne \)
(3).
\(\displaystyle ^{22} _{10} \,Ne \)
(4).
\(\displaystyle ^{22} _{12} \,Mg \)
35.
In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same-region of the screen is :

(1).
6
(2).
8
(3).
9
(4).
12
36.
Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atom, respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is :

(1).
1:04
(2).
4:01
(3).
4:09
(4).
9 : 4
37.
A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index \(\sqrt{3}\) , at an angle \(60^ \circ\) . The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be :

(1).
\(30^\circ\)
(2).
\(60^\circ\)
(3).
\(90^\circ\)
(4).
\(120^\circ\)
38.
The transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are \(1.5 \times 10^ 8 \,m/s\) and \(2.0 \times 10^8 \,m/s\), respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is :

(1).
\(sin^{–1}\left(0.500\right)\)
(2).
\(sin^{–1}\left(0.750\right)\)
(3).
\(tan^{–1}\left (0.500\right)\)
(4).
\(tan^{ –1}\left (0.750\right)\)
39.
As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance

(1).
Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
(2).
Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
(3).
Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
(4).
Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors
40.
A nucleus of mass number of 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is :

(1).
1:01
(2).
4:05
(3).
5:04
(4).
25:16:00
41.
Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is

(1).
1 : 2
(2).
2 : 1
(3).
1 : 4
(4).
4 : 1
42.
A copper wire of length 10 m and radius \(\displaystyle \left(\frac{10{^{−2}}}{\sqrt{\pi}}\right)\) m has electrical resistance of 10 Ω. The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V ∕ m) is

(1).
\(10^4\,A ∕ m^2\)
(2).
\(10^6\,A ∕ m^2\)
(3).
\(10^{−5}\,A ∕ m^2\)
(4).
\(10^5\,A ∕ m^2\)
43.
The dimensions [\(M LT^{−2}A^{−2}\)] belong to the

(1).
Magnetic flux
(2).
Self inductance
(3).
Magnetic permeability
(4).
Electric permittivity
44.
A long solenoid of radius 1mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is

(1).
\(6.28 \times 10^{−2}\,T\)
(2).
\(12.56 \times 10^{−2}\,T\)
(3).
\(12.56 \times 10^{−4}\,T\)
(4).
\(6.28 \times 10^{−4}\,T\)
45.
Match List-I with List-II

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
46.
When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity \(\epsilon_r\) and relative permeability \(\mu_r\), the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)

(1).
v = c
(2).
\(\displaystyle v=\sqrt{\frac{µ_r}{ε_r}}\)
(3).
\(\displaystyle v=\sqrt{\frac{ε_r}{µ_r}}\)
(4).
\(\displaystyle v=\frac{c}{\sqrt{ε_rµ_r}}\)
47.
From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is:

(1).
Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
(2).
A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for the outside region.
(3).
A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{r}\) dependence for the outside region.
(4).
A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing one for the outside region.
48.
Given below are two statements.
Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Id while the later being produced by a vector source, q. In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
49.
The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100kW transmitter in 1 hour is

(1).
36 × 107 J
(2).
36 × 104 J
(3).
36 × 105 J
(4).
1 × 105 J
50.
A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is

(1).
+2 D
(2).
+20 D
(3).
+5 D
(4).
Infinity
51.
Which one is not correct mathematical equationfor Dalton's Law of partial pressure?
Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture

(1).
\(p\,=\,p_1\,+\,p_2\,+\,p_3\)
(2).
\(p\,=\,n_1 \frac{RT}{V}\,+\,n_2 \frac{RT}{V}\,+\,n_3 \frac{RT}{V}\)
(3).
\(p_i\,=\, x_ip_i\) where \(p_i\) = partial pressure of \(i^{th}\) gas and \(x_i\) = mole fraction of \(i^th\) gas in gaseous mixture
(4).
\(p_i\,=\, x_ip_i^\circ\) where \(p_i^\circ\) = partial pressure of \(i^{th}\) gas and \(x_i\) = mole fraction of \(i^th\) gas in gaseous mixture
52.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In a particular point defect, anionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells.
Reason (R) : In an ionic solid, Frenkel defectarises due to dislocation of cation from its latticesite to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3).
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4).
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
53.
Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisationenthalpy because of

(1).
small size
(2).
high exchange enthalpy
(3).
high electronegativity
(4).
high basic character
54.
The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is
[Given aKa, of CH3COOH = 4.57]

(1).
5.57
(2).
3.57
(3).
4.57
(4).
2.57
55.
Identify the incorrect statement from the following

(1).
Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
(2).
The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.
(3).
Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.
(4).
Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
56.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group.
Statement II : O-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and P-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the options givenbelow:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II areincorrect.
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II isincorrect.
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II iscorrect.
57.
What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction?

[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

(1).
1.25 g
(2).
1.32 g
(3).
3.65 g
(4).
9.50 g
58.
The IUPAC name of an element with atomicnumber 119 is

(1).
ununennium
(2).
unnilennium
(3).
unununnium
(4).
ununoctium
59.
Choose the correct statement:

(1).
Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
(2).
Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
(3).
Diamond is sp3 hybridized and graphite is sp2 hybridized.
(4).
Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
60.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the coagulation of a negativesol, the flocculating power of the three given ionsis in the order
AI3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
Statement II : In the coagulation of a positivesol, the flocculating power of the three given saltsis in the orderNaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO3
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the options givenbelow:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II isincorrect.
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
61.
Which of the following p-V curve representsmaximum work done?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
62.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.
Statement Il : Primary aromatic amines reactwith HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II isincorrect.
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
63.
Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?

(1).
The bond order of \(O_{2}^{+}\), \(O_2\), \(O_{2}^{-}\), and \(O_{2}^{2-}\) are2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
(2).
\(C_2\) molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate molecular orbitals
(3).
\(H_{2}^{+}\) ion has one electron
(4).
\(O_{2}^{+}\) ion is diamagnetic dry
64.

What is Y in the above reaction?

(1).
RCOO-Mg+X
(2).
R2CO-Mg+X
(3).
RCOO-X+
(4).
(RCOO)2Mg
65.
Which statement regarding polymers isnot correct?

(1).
Elastomers have polymer chains held togetherby weak intermolecular forces
(2).
Fibers possess high tensile strength
(3).
Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling respectively
(4).
Thermosetting polymers are reusable
66.
Given below are half cell reactions:

Will the permanganate ion, MnO4- liberate O2 from water in the presence of an acid?

(1).
\(\text{Yes, because}\, E^\circ _{cell}\,=\,+0.287\, \text{V}\)
(2).
\(\text{No, because}\, E^\circ _{cell}\,=\,-0.287\, \text{V}\)
(3).
\(\text{Yes, because} \,E^\circ _{cell}\,=\,+2.733\, \text{V}\)
(4).
\(\text{Np, because}\, E^\circ _{cell}\,=\,-2.733\, \text{V}\)
67.
The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
68.
The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is

(1).
Enzymes are biocatalysts.
(2).
Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce theactivation energy of bio processes.
(3).
Enzymes are polysaccharides.
(4).
Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
69.
The IUPAC name of the complex - [Ag(H2O)2] [Ag(CN)2] is :

(1).
dicyanido silver(II) diaqua argentate(II)
(2).
diaqua silver(II) dicyanido argentate(II)
(3).
dicyanido silver(I) diaqua argentate(I)
(4).
diaqua silver(I) dicyanido argentate(I)
70.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow :

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c)-(iv), (d) -(i)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d)- (i)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c)-(ii), (d) – (iii)
(4).
(a)-(iv), (b)-– (iii), (c) -(i), (d) - (ii)
71.
Amongst the following which one will havemaximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions?

(1).
CIF3
(2).
IF5
(3).
SF4
(4).
XeF2
72.
At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of
\(\displaystyle \frac{Cu^{2+}}{Cu}\), \(\displaystyle \frac{Zn^{2+}}{Zn}\), \(\displaystyle \frac{Fe^{2+}}{Fe}\), and \(\displaystyle \frac{Ag^{+}}{Ag}\) are \(0.34\, \text{V}\), \(-0.76\, \text{V}\), \(-0.44\, \text{ V}\) and \(0.80\, \text{V}\), respectively.
On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
73.
Identify the incorrect statement from thefollowing:

(1).
All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
(2).
All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar tothe respective 3d orbitals.
(3).
In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.
(4).
The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are similar to each other; and dx2-y2and dz2 are similar to each other.
74.
In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of asolute, there is

(1).
500 mL of solvent
(2).
500 g of solvent
(3).
100 mL of solvent
(4).
1000 g of solvent
75.
Given below are two statements: one is labelledas Assertion (A) and the other is labelled asReason (R).
Assertion (A) : ICI is more reactive than I2.
Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the options givenbelow:

(1).
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correctexplanation of (A).
(2).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3).
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4).
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
76.
Which compound amongst the following is not anaromatic compound?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
77.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te.
Statement II: The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the options givenbelow :

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II isincorrect.
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II isCorrect.
78.
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow :

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) – (iii), (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) -(iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) -(i)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4).
(a)- (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) -(i), (d) - (iv)
79.
Which of the following sequence of reactions issuitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?

(1).
Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
(2).
Phenol, NaNO2, HCl, CuCl
(3).
(4).
80.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons ofcomparable molecular masses because of weakmolecular association in aldehydes and ketones dueto dipole - dipole interactions.
Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydesand ketones are lower than the alcohols of similarmolecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II isincorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
81.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow:

(1).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(3).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(4).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
82.
The incorrect statement regarding chirality is

(1).
SN1reaction yields 1:1 mixture of bothenantiomers
(2).
The product obtained by SN1 reaction ofhaloalkane having chirality at the reactive siteshows inversion of configuration
(3).
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other
(4).
A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
83.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow:

(1).
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a)-(iii), (b)– (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
84.
Which of the following statement is not correctabout diborane?

(1).
There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
(2).
The four terminal B-H bonds are two centretwo electron bonds.
(3).
The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.
(4).
Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
85.
The given graph is a representation of kinetics ofa reaction.

The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions,respectively are

(1).
zero order (y = concentration and x = time),first order (y = t and x = concentration)
(2).
zero order (y = concentration and x = time),first order (y = rate constant and x =concentration)
(3).
zero order (y = rate and x = concentration),first order (y = t and x = concentration)
(4).
zero order (y = rate and x = concentration),first order (y = rate and x = t)
86.
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow:

(1).
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(2).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) -(ii), (d) - (iv)
87.
A 10.0 L flask contains 64g ofoxygen at \(\text{27}^\circ C\). (Assume O2 gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside theflask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K-1 mol-1)

(1).
2.5
(2).
498.6
(3).
49.8
(4).
4.9
88.
For a first order reaction A → Products, initialconcentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for thereaction in min-1 is

(1).
1.3818
(2).
0.9212
(3).
0.4606
(4).
0.2303
89.
The order of energy absorbed which is responsiblefor the color of complexes

(1).
[A] > [B] > [C]
(2).
[C] > [B] > [A]
(3).
[C] > [A]> [B]
(4).
[B] > [A] > [C]
90.
\(\text{3O}_2\,\left(g\right) \rightarrow\, \text{2O}_3 \left(g\right) \)
for the above reaction at 298 K, Kc is found to be \(3.0 \times 10^-{59}\). If the concentration of O2 at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O2 in M is

(1).
\( 4.38 \times 10^{-32}\)
(2).
\(1.9 \times 10^{-63}\)
(3).
\(2.4 \times 10^{31}\)
(4).
\(1.2 \times 10^{21}\)
91.
Find the emf of the cell in which the followingreaction takes place at 298 K

(1).
1.0385 V
(2).
1.385 V
(3).
0.9615 V
(4).
1.05 V
92.
Which one of the following is not formed whenacetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presenceof dilute NaOH followed by heating?

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
93.
The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1).
1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
(2).
6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methythexan-4-ol
(3).
1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol
(4).
6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
94.
If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion?

(1).
158.7 pm
(2).
15.87 pm
(3).
1.587 pm
(4).
158.7 Ả
95.
Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products.
The compound X is

(1).
3-Methylbut-1-ene
(2).
2-Methylbut-1-ene
(3).
2-Methylbut-2-ene
(4).
Pent-2-ene
96.
In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from

(1).
+7 to +4
(2).
+6 to +4
(3).
+7 to +3
(4).
+6 to +5
97.
The pollution due to oxides of sulphur getsenhanced due to the presence of:
(a) particulate matter
(b) Ozone
(c) hydrocarbons
(d) hydrogen peroxide
Choose the most appropriate answer from theoptions given below:

(1).
(a), (d) only
(2).
(a), (b), (d) only
(3).
(b), (c), (d) only
(4).
(a), (c), (d) only
98.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : In Lucas test, primary, secondaryand tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basisof their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II : Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at roomtemperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the mostappropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
99.
Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edgelength of \(3.608 \times 10^8\) cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm-3. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.

(1).
63.1u
(2).
31.55 u
(3).
60 u
(4).
65 u
100.
The product formed from the following reactionsequence is

(1).
(2).
(3).
(4).
101.
Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:

(1).
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
(2).
Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
(3).
Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
(4).
Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
102.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamousaol.
Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageousas there is no chance for cross pollination.
In the light of the above statements, choose thecorrect answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II isincorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
103.
Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid.
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c =c bonds.
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter.
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents.
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a), (b) and (c) only
(2).
(a), (d) and (e) only
(3).
('c), (d) and (e) only
(4).
(a), (b) and (d) only
104.
Transposons can be used during which one of the following?

(1).
Polymerase chain reaction
(2).
Gene silencing
(3).
Autoradiography
(4).
Gene sequencing
105.
While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (-) for another species involved in the interaction?

(1).
Predation
(2).
Amensalism
(3).
Commensalism
(4).
Competition
106.
In the following palindromic base sequence of DNA, which one can be cut easily by a particular restriction enzyme?

(1).
5 GATACT 3;3 CTATGA 5 slseubos
(2).
5 GAATTC 3:33 CTTAAG 5
(3).
5 CTCAGT 3 ;3 GAGTCA 5,
(4).
5 GTATTC 3;3 CATAAG 5
107.
Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?

(1).
Burning of fossil fuels
(2).
Volcanic activity
(3).
Weathering of rocks
(4).
Rainfall and stormssEiCrill
108.
Match the plant with the kind of life cycle itexhibits.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(2).
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)
(3).
(a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) -(i); (d) - (ii)
(4).
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
109.
Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d)- (ii)
(2).
(a)- (i); (b) - (iii); (c)- (ii); (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)
(4).
(a)- (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
110.
What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?

(1).
To provide the site of photorespiratory pathway
(2).
To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle
(3).
To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature
(4).
To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity
111.
Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

(1).
Blood
(2).
Adipose tissue
(3).
Cartilage
(4).
Neuroglia
112.
Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?
(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes.
(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis.
(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population.
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinizing hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary.
(e) It is initiated at puberty.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
(c) and (e) only
(2).
(b) and (c) only
(3).
(b), (d) and (e) only
(4).
(b), (c) and (e) only
113.
Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1).
Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
(2).
Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms
(3).
Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
(4).
Mycoplasma have DNA, Ribosome and cell wall
114.
If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness ?

(1).
25%
(2).
50%
(3).
75%
(4).
100%
115.
Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1).
(a)- (iü); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (ii); (d) - ()
(3).
(a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a)- (iü); (b) - (i); (c)- (ii); (d) - (iv)
116.
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:

(1).
Genetic mapping
(2).
DNA finger printing
(3).
Both genetic mapping and DNA fingerprinting
(4).
Translation
117.
The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is:

(1).
STP
(2).
Incinerator
(3).
Electrostatic Precipitator
(4).
Catalytic Convertor
118.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance.
Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is Correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
119.
Read the following statements about the vascular bundles
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii.
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium.
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambiumn is present in between xylem and phloem.
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem.
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a), (b) and (d) only
(2).
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
(3).
(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(4).
(a), (c), (d) and (e) only
120.
The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
(a) Mustard
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Cassia
(d) Datura
(e) Chilli
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a), (b), (c) only
(2).
(b), (c) only
(3).
(d), (e) only
(4).
('c), (d), (e) only
121.
Identify the correct set of statements:
(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea.
(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin.
(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy on Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves.
(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration.
(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(b) and (c) only
(2).
(a) and (d) only
(3).
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
(4).
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
122.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1).
Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
(2).
Ulothrix - Mannitol
(3).
Porphyra - Floridian Starch
(4).
Volvox - Starch
123.
Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?

(1).
Rhizobium
(2).
Frankia
(3).
Rhodospirillum
(4).
Beijerinckia
124.
Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from

(1).
Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(2).
Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(3).
Rhodophyceae only
(4).
Phaeophyceae only
125.
What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?

(1).
Four
(2).
Six
(3).
Two
(4).
Eight
126.
The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes:

(1).
Synaptonemal complex
(2).
Bivalent
(3).
Sites at which crossing over occurs
(4).
Ternminalization
127.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C, plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statenment I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statenent I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
128.
"Girdling Experiment" was performed by plant physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:

(1).
Water is transported
(2).
Food is transported
(3).
For both water and food transportation
(4).
Osmosis is observed
129.
XO type of sex determination can be found in

(1).
Drosophila
(2).
Birds
(3).
Grasshoppers
(4).
Monkeys
130.
Addition of more solutes in a given solution will:

(1).
Raise its water potential
(2).
Lower its water potential
(3).
Make its water potential zero
(4).
Not affect the water potential at all
131.
If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of functions to different segment, the methodology adopted by him is called as:

(1).
Sequence annotation
(2).
Gene mapping
(3).
Expressed sequence tags
(4).
Bioinformatics
132.
Which of the following occurs due to the presence of an autosome linked dominant trait?

(1).
Sickle cell anaemia
(2).
Myotonic dystrophy
(3).
Haemophilia
(4).
Thalassemia
133.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Mendel's law of Independent assortmnent does not hold goods for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes asSort independently.
Answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3).
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4).
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
134.
Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figuremakes it a false fruit?

(1).
A-Mesocarp
(2).
B - Endocarp
(3).
C-Thalamus
(4).
D - Seed
135.
The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?

(1).
CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
(2).
The same diesel engine is used in CNG buses making the cost of conversion low
(3).
It is cheaper than diesel
(4).
It cannot be adulterated like diesel
136.
The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.
(a) It is also called early wood.
(b) In the spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels.
(c) It is lighter in colour.
(d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings.
(e) It has lower density.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
(2).
(a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(3).
(a), (b), and (d) only
(4).
(c), (d) and (e) only
137.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into blood.
Statemnent II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1).
Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both statement I and statenent II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but statement I is correct
138.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
StatementI is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
139.
Which of the following is not the function of theconducting part of the respiratory system?

(1).
It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
(2).
Inhaled air is humidified
(3).
Temperature of inhaled air is brought to bodytemperature
(4).
Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2
140.
Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin

(1).
Trichoderma polysporum
(2).
Clostridium butylicum
(3).
Aspergillus niger
(4).
Streptococcus cerevisiae
141.
Under normal physical conditions in human beings every 100 ml oxygenated blood can deliver ______ ml of O2 to the tissues.

(1).
2 ml
(2).
5 ml
(3).
4 ml
(4).
10 ml
142.
Tegmina in cockroach arises from

(1).
Prothorax
(2).
Mesothorax
(3).
Metathorax
(4).
Prothorax and Mesothorax
143.
In situ conservation refers to:

(1).
Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
(2).
Conserve only high risk species
(3).
Conserve only endangered species
(4).
Conserve only extinct species
144.
Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:

(1).
Catabolism
(2).
Fragmentation
(3).
Humification
(4).
Decomposition
145.
A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6 then what is the formula for maltose?

(1).
C12H20O10
(2).
C12H24O12
(3).
C12H22O11
(4).
C12H24O11
146.
Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium:

(1).
Zoospores
(2).
Conidiao
(3).
Gemmules
(4).
Buds
147.
Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:

(1).
All the chromosomnes lie at the equator at metaphase
(2).
Spindle fibres, attach to centromere of chromosomes
(3).
Chromosomes decondense at the telophase stage
(4).
Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase
148.
Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

(1).
RER has ribosomes attached to ER
(2).
SER is devoid of ribosomes
(3).
In prokaryotes only RER are present
(4).
SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
149.
In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in the case of animals?

(1).
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
(2).
Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species
(3).
Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
(4).
Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
150.
In which of the following animals, does the digestive tract have additional chambers like crop and gizzard?

(1).
Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
(2).
Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
(3).
Catla, Columbia, Crocodilus
(4).
Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
151.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with a cell wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
152.
Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:

(1).
Ornithorhynchus
(2).
Salamandra
(3).
Hippocampus
(4).
Pavo
153.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by the vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3).
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4).
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct a
154.
Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?

(1).
Arthritis - Inflamed joints
(2).
Tetany - high Ca2+ level causing rapid spasms
(3).
Myasthenia gravis - Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
(4).
Muscular dystrophy - An autoimmune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
155.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fracture.
Reason (R) : Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of oestrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3).
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4).
(A) is not correct but (R) is correçt
156.
In an E. coli strain the i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If the growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?

(1).
Only z gene will get transcribed
(2).
z, y, a genes will be transcribed
(3).
Z, y, a genes will not be translated
(4).
RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
157.
If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?

(1).
3.3 × 109 bp
(2).
6.6 x 109 bp
(3).
3.3 x 106 bp
(4).
6.6 x 106 bp
158.
Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?

(1).
Intercalated discs
(2).
Cartilage
(3).
Areolar tissue
(4).
Smooth muscle
159.
Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

(1).
There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
(2).
DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II
(3).
Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
(4).
Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II
160.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a condition where the body defense mnechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II :Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where the body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statemnents, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
161.
Natural selection where more individuals acquire a specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to:

(1).
Stabilising change
(2).
Directional change
(3).
Disruptive change
(4).
Random change
162.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The coagulum is formed of a network of threads called thrombins.
Statemnent II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
163.
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:

(1).
Biomagnification
(2).
Bioremediation
(3).
Biofortification
(4).
Bioaccumulation
164.
In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:

(1).
Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes
(2).
Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages
(3).
Lymphocytes from patient's blood are grown in culture, outside the body
(4).
Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
165.
At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

(1).
Puberty
(2).
Embryonic development stage
(3).
Birth
(4).
Adult
166.
Lippes loop is a type of contraceptive used as:

(1).
Cervical barrier
(2).
Vaut barrier
(3).
Non-Medicated IUD
(4).
Copper releasing IUD
167.
Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?

(1).
Control bacterial population in mouth
(2).
Digestion of complex carbohydrates
(3).
Lubrication of oral cavity
(4).
Digestion of disaccharides
168.
If 8 Drosophila in a laboratory population of 80died during a week, the death rate in the populationis ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(1).
0.1
(2).
10
(3).
1.0
(4).
Zero
169.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequences to cut DNAknown as palindromic nucleotide sequences.
Statement II : Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
170.
Statements related to human insulin are given below:
Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of Cpeptide.
(b) A peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were 1 produced separately in E. coli, extracted and combined by creating a disulphide bond between them.
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.:RpP.
(d) Pro-hormone insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a), (b) and (d) only
(2).
(b) only
(3).
(c) and (d) only
(4).
(c), (d) and (e) only
171.
Given below are two statements:
Statenent I : In a scrubber, exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.
Statement II : Particular matter (PM 2.5) can not be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.lotze1.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
172.
The recombination frequency between the genesa &c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%o, a & b is 20%,c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be thesequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?

(1).
a, d, b, c
(2).
d, b, a, c
(3).
a, b, c, d
(4).
a, c, b, d
173.
Match list I with list II.

Choose the correct answerfrom the options given below :

(1).
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iü); (c) -(iv); (d)- (i)a
(2).
(a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) -(i); (d)- (ii)oinb
(3).
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) (i)
(4).
(a)- (iv); (b) - (iü); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
174.
Match list I with list II with respect to methods ofcontraception and their respective actions.

Choose the correct answer fromn the options given below:

(1).
(a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
(2).
(a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(3).
(a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)
175.
Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stinulates the process of bone resorption,.
(b) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood,.
(c) Reabsorption of Ca by renal tubules,.
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca² from digested food.
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a) and (c) only
(2).
(b), (d) and (e) only
(3).
(a) and (e) only
(4).
(b) and (c) only
176.
Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity:

(1).
Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
(2).
Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen
(3).
Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter
(4).
Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth
177.
Ten E. coli cells with 15N- dsDNA are incubated in a medium containing 14N nucleotides. After 60 minutes, how many E. coli cells will have DNA totally free from 15N?

(1).
20 cells
(2).
40 cells
(3).
60 cells
(4).
80 cells
178.
Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector ?

(1).
Presence of origin of replication
(2).
Presence of a marker gene
(3).
Presence of single restriction enzyme site
(4).
Presence of two or more recognition sites
179.
Match list I with list II.

Choose the correct answer fromn the options given below:

(1).
(a)- (iv): (b) - (iii); (c)-(); (d) - (ii)aiE
(2).
(a)- (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)
(3).
(a)- (i); (b) - (i); (c)- (iv); (d) - (iii)
(4).
(a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)
180.
Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1).
The atrioventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
(2).
The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria
(3).
Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole
(4).
Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves
181.
Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses

(1).
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical sLSynapse.
(2).
Electrical current.can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
(3).
Chemical synapse use neurotransmitters
(4).
Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse
182.
Which of the following statements is not true?

(1).
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
(2).
Sweet potato and potato is an example of vo analogy
(3).
Homology indicates common ancestry
(4).
Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
183.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3).
(A) is correct but (R) is not corr
(4).
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
184.
The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as:

(1).
The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
(2).
The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
(3).
Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA
(4).
The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
185.
The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:

(1).
Speed up the malting process
(2).
Promote root growth and root hair formation to increase the absorption surface
(3).
Help overcome apical dominance
(4).
Kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields
186.
Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:

(1).
Cutin
(2).
Cellulose
(3).
Chitin
(4).
Glucosamine
187.
Which of the following is not observed during anapoplastic pathway?

(1).
Movement of water occurs throughintercellular spaces and wall of the cells
(2).
The movement does not involve crossing of cellmembrane
(3).
The movement is aided by cytoplasmicstreaming
(4).
Apoplast is continuous and does not provide anybarrier to water movement
188.
Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?

(1).
In vitro fertilization
(2).
National Parks
(3).
Micropropagation
(4).
Cryopreservation
189.
Which one of the following statements is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

(1).
The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution
(2).
The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide
(3).
The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel
(4).
Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light
190.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis?
It involves:

(1).
Breakdown of proton gradient
(2).
Breakdown of electron gradient
(3).
Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
(4).
Reduction of NADP to NADPH, on the stroma side of the membrane
191.
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:

(1).
Population explosion
(2).
Competition
(3).
Biodiversity loss
(4).
Natality
192.
Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?

(1).
Cotton
(2).
Coriander
(3).
Buttercup
(4).
Maize
193.
Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?

(1).
It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
(2).
It might lead to extinction of a species
(3).
Both the interacting species are negatively impacted
(4).
It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance
194.
What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?

(1).
Approximately 15%
(2).
More than 18%
(3).
About 10%
(4).
Less than 7%
195.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.
Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1).
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2).
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3).
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4).
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
196.
Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin.
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active.
(c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome.
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine.
(e) Atypical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(b), (d), (e) Only
(2).
(a), (c), (d) Only
(3).
(b), (e) Only
(4).
(a), (c), (e) Only
197.
Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?

(1).
Colchicum autumnale
(2).
Pisum sativum
(3).
Allium cepa
(4).
Solanum nigrum
198.
In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to:
(a) Secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
(b) Deposition of organic cómpounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of the stem.
(c) Deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of the stem.
(d) Deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of the stem.
(e) Presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1).
(a) and (b) only
(2).
(c) and (d) only
(3).
(d) and (e) only
(4).
(b) and (d) only
199.
Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

(1).
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
(2).
Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles
(3).
Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(4).
Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
200.
Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants?

(1).
ABA
(2).
Gibberellin
(3).
Ethylene
(4).
Cytokinin